UTME CBT Practice Mock Tests – Faculty of Health Sciences (Phy; Chem; Bio; Eng) – Set 1

UTME CBT Practice Mock Tests – (Phy; Chem; Bio; Eng) – Set 1

Hello! Welcome to UTME CBT Practice Mock Tests - Faculty of Health Sciences (Phy; Chem; Bio; Eng) - Set 1

  1. You are to attempt 180 Objectives Questions ONLY in the following UTME subjects
    Use of English
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UTME Physics - 40 Objective Questions

Which one of the following types of waves cannot travel through a vacuum?

A. sound waves     B. light waves     C. infra-red waves     D. x-radiation

In what range of temperature is the expansion of water anomalous?

A. +208°C to ±212°C
B -80°c + -76°C
C. -4°C to 0°C
D +96°C to + 100oC
E. 0°C to + 4°C

Which of the following statements defines correctly the efficiency of a machine?

A. The load carried by the machine divided by effort required in carrying the load
B. The distance moved by the load divided by the distance moved by the effort
C. The useful work done by the machine divided by the total work put into it.
D. The movement of the load divided by the movement of the effort about the same point

A 500kg car which was initially at rest travelled with an acceleration of 5m sec-2, its kinetic energy attained after 4 seconds was

A. 105 J     B.2.5 x 103 J     C. 2 x 103 J     D. 5 x 103 J

If the wavelength of a wave travelling with a velocity of 360 ms-1 is 60 cm, the period of the wave is ____

A. 6s    B. 3.6s    C. 017s    D. 0.61s

An object is placed 30 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. The linear magnification of the image produced is ______

A. 0     B. 2/3     C. 1     D. 2

In the given circuit, the cell P has an e.m.f. 1.5 V and an unknown internal resistance r while the cell Q has an e.m.f. 2.0 V and an internal resistance 1 ohm. If the ammeter reads 50 mA, then r is equal to _______

A. 0.5 ohms     B. 0.62 ohms     C. 1.0 ohms     D. 2.0 ohms

If in a simple pendulum experiment the length of the inextensible string is increased by a factor of four, its period is increased by a factor of _____

A. 4    B. π/2    C. 2      D. 2π

The density of 400 cm-3 of palm oil was 0.9 g cm3 before frying. If the density of the oil was  0.6 g cm-3 after frying, assuming no loss of oil due to spilling, its new volume was ______

A. 360 cm3    B. 600 cm3    C. 240 cm3    D. 800 cm3

The temperature at which the water vapour present in the air saturates the air and begins to condense is known as ______

A. boiling point     B. melting point     C. triple point     D. dew point

If in a simple pendulum experiment the length of the inextensible string is increased by a factor of four, its period is increased by a factor of _____

A. 4    B. π/2    C. 2      D. 2π

PQR is an equilateral glass prism of refractive index 1.5. Light incident normally on face PQ as shown in the figure above will _____

A. undergo total internal reflection at face PR and then emerge normal to the face QR
B. emerge on face PR
C. undergo total internal reflection at face PR and emerge deflected away from the normal on face QR
D. be completely reflected back along its path.

A landlord has eight 40W electric light bulbs, four 60W bulbs and two 100W bulbs in his house. If he has all the points on for five hours daily and if PHCN charges 5k per unit, his bill for 30 days is ____

A. N 5.70    B. N 7.23    C. N 3.65    D. N 8.05

An electric cell has an internal resistance of 2 ohms. A current of 0.5 A is found to flow when a resistor of 5 ohms resistance is connected across it. What is the electromotive force of the cell?

A. 5 volts    B. 3.5 volts    C. 2.5 volts    D. 1 volt

A man standing between two parallel mirrors in a barber’s shop will see the following number of his own image _______

A. Eight     B. Two     C. Four     D. Infinite

In the given circuit, the cell P has an e.m.f. 1.5 V and an unknown internal resistance r while the cell Q has an e.m.f. 2.0 V and an internal resistance 1 ohm. If the ammeter reads 50 mA, then r is equal to _______

A. 0.5 ohms     B. 0.62 ohms     C. 1.0 ohms     D. 2.0 ohms

A concave lens of focal length 20cm forms an image \frac{1}{2} the size of the object. The object distance is ______

A. 100 cm     B. \frac{100}{9} cm     C. 60 cm    D. \frac{60}{7} cm

In an electrolysis experiment, a cathode of mass 5g is found to weigh 5.01 g after a current of 5 A flows for 50 seconds. What is the electrochemical equivalent of the deposited substance?

A. 0.00004 g/C     B. 0.00002 g/C     C. 0.02500 g/C     D. 0.05000 g/C

The figure above shows a current I flowing in a copper wire situated in the magnetic field existing between the pole-pieces of a horse-shoe magnet. Which of the following statements ‘s correct?

A. The wire will experience a force in the direction into the paper.
B. The wire will experience a force in the direction out of the paper
C. The wire will vibrate in the direction into and out of the paper
D. The wire will move in the direction of the field, i.e. towards the S-pole

An object is placed 30 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. The linear magnification of the image produced is ______

A. 0     B. 2/3     C. 1     D. 2

The diagram above shows the lens arrangement in ______

A. a compound microscope
B. an astronomical telescope
C. a binocular
D. a periscope

When the vapour of a substance is in equilibrium with its own liquid, it is said to be _______

A. gaseous     B. unsaturated     C. saturated     D. diffused

The bulb of a motorcycle head-lamp is marked 40W, 6V. The resistance of the filament when it is switched on is _____

A. 62/40 ohms    B. 40/62 ohms    C. 40/6 ohms    D. 6 x 40 ohms

An air bubble rises from the bottom to the top of a water dam which is 40m deep. The volume of the bubble just below the surface is 2.5 cm. Find its volume at the bottom of the dam, if atmospheric pressure is equivalent to 10 m of water.

A. 10.0 cm3 B. 20 cm3 C. 1.6 cm3 D. 0.5 cm3

In a resonance tube experiment which is illustrated above, the velocity of sound in air is 327.68 m/s, the frequency of the tuning fork used is therefore ______

A. 128 Hz    B. 256 Hz    C. 512 Hz    D. 768 Hz

A uniform beam HK of length 10 m and weighing 200 N is supported at both ends as shown above. A man weighing 1000 N stands at a point P on the beam. If the reactions at H and K are respectively 800 N and 400 N, then the distance HP is  ______

A. 4 m     B. 3\frac{1}{3} m     C. 3 m     D. 6\frac{2}{3} m

Which of the following statements is correct? The reading of pressure on a mercury barometer is independent of ______

A. the cross-sectional area of the tube
B. the atmospheric pressure
C. the density of mercury
D. the temperature of mercury

What are the units of thermal conductivity?

A. kg.m.sec2     B. Joule sec-1 m-1 K-1     C. kg.m     D. Newton sec-1 m-1 K-1

A capacitor and a resistor are connected in series with each other and in series with an accumulator of negligible internal resistance. The potential difference across the terminals of the capacitor is ______

A. twice the e.m.f. of the accumulator
B. less than the. e.m.f. by the. potential drop across the resistor
C. greater than the e.m.f.
D. the same as the e.m.f.

Which of the following statements is incorrect? The sensitivity of a galvanometer which incorporates an optical lever arrangement may be increased by providing:

A. a larger number of turns in the coil
B. a thinner suspension with a small torsional control
C. a special alloy permanent magnet which gives a high magnetic flux
D. all of the above

The sum of the currents I1 and I2 in the figure above is ______

A. 1.2 A    B. 0.6 A    C. 0.8 A    D. 2 A

Which of the following statements is correct? The magnetized state of an iron bar can be destroyed completely by ______

A. heating the bar to a high temperature
B. breaking the bar
C. connecting opposite poles with a small piece of iron
D. placing the bar inside a strong magnetic field

Which of the following statements is true? The frequency of a vibrating string is _____

A. proportional to its length
B. proportional to the square root of the tension within it.
C. proportional to the aptitude of vibration
D. inversely proportional to its cross-section

Consider a thick glass tumbler and a thin glass tumbler which are made of the same kind of glass. Some hot liquid is poured into them. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. The thick tumbler is less likely to crack because it is stronger
B. The thick tumbler is less likely to crack because it insulates the heat better, glass being a poor conductor of heat.
C. Both tumblers are equally likely to crack because they are made of the same kind of glass.
D. The thick tumbler is more likely to crack because uneven expansion persists for a longer time within the thicker glass

Which of the following is the correct definition of half-life?

A. The average life-time of a radioactive material
B. The time it takes a radioactive material to decay to half of its original quantity.
C. Half the period a radioactive material decays completely
D. Half of the decay constant

Which of the following statements about radioactivity are true?

(i) Alpha particle is positively charged
(ii) Beta particle is negatively charged
(iii) Gamma ray is neutral
(iv) Beta particle has the same mass as helium atom
(v) Gamma ray is charged.

A. i, ii, iii, iv only     B. iv and v only     C. i, ii and iii only     D. i, ii and v only

The heights of the mercury thread in a mercury-in-glass thermometer when in melting ice and then in steam are 3cm and 18cm respectively. At a temperature of 60°C the height would be ______

A. 7.5 cm    B. 9 cm    C. 10.8 cm    D. 12 cm

Which of the following electromagnetic waves has the shortest wavelength?

A. Radio waves     B. X rays     C. infra-red     D. Blue light

The figure above shows a see-say which is exactly in balance. The weights of the people sitting on it are 50 kg, X kg and 15 kg as shown. They sit at distances of 1\frac{1}{2} m, 1\frac{1}{2} m and 2m from the pivot respectively. The value of X is ______

A. 30     B. 35     C. 70     D. 26¼

All the heat generated in a 5 ohm resistor by 2 A flowing for 30. seconds is used to evaporate 5 g of a liquid at its boiling point. Which of the following is the correct value of the specific latent heat of the liquid?

A. 120 J     B. 60 Jg-1     C. 120 Jg-1     D. 1500J

UTME Chemistry - 40 Objective Questions

What is the concentration of a solution containing 2g of NaOH in 100 cm3 of solution?
(Na = 23, 0 =16, H =1)

A. 0:40 mol dm3    B. 0.50 moldm3    C. 0.05 mol dm4    D. 0.30 mol dm4

Which of the following properties s NOT peculiar to matter?

A. Kinetic energy of particles increases from solid to gas.
B. Random motion of particles increases from liquid to gas.
C.. Orderliness of particles increases from gas to liquid.
D. Random motion of particles increases from gas to solid.

The principle of column chromatography is based on the ability of the constituents to _____

A. move at different speeds ¡n the column
B. dissolve in each other in the column
C. react with the solvent in the column
D. react with each other in the column.

From the diagram above, an deal gas can be represented by

A. M     B. N    C. K     D. L.

Which of the following questions is correct about the periodic table?

A. The non-metallic properties of the elements tend to decrease across each period.
B. The valence electrons of the elements increase progressively across the period.
C. Elements in the same group have the same number of electron shells.
D. Elements in the same period have the same number of valence electrons.

An isotope has an atomic number of 15 and a mass number of 31. The number of protons it
contains is _____

A. 16    B. 15    C. 46    D. 31.

The molecular lattice of iodine is held together by _______

A. dative bond     B. metallic bond    C. hydrogen bond    D. van der Waal’s forces.

The arrangement of particles in crystal lattices can be studied using

A. x-rays     B. γ-rays     C. α-rays     D. β-rays.

From the diagram above, find the amount of solute deposited when 200 cm3 of the solution is cooled from 55°C to 40°C. is _____

A. 0.10 moIe    B. 0.20 mole    C. 0.01 mole    D. 0.02 moIe

The importance of sodium aluminate (III) in the treatment of water is to _______

A. cause coagulation    B. neutralize acidity    C. prevent goiter and tooth decay    D. kill germs.

What type of bond exists between an element X with atomic number 12 and Y with atomic
number 17?

A. Electrovalent.    B. Metallic.    C. Covalent.    D. Dative.

Hardness of water is mainly due to the presence of ______

A. calcium hydroxide or magnesium hydroxide
B. calcium trioxocarbonate (IV) or calcium tetraoxosuiphate (VI)
C. sodium hydroxide or magnesium hydroxide
D. calcium chloride or sodium chloride salts.

A suitable solvent for iodine and nephthalene is ______

A. carbon (IV) sulphide    B. ethanol    C. water   D. benzene.

Which of the following noble gases is commonly found in the atmosphere?

A. Xenon. .    B. Neon.    C. Helium.    D. Argon

In the reaction above, an ¡increase in temperature will

A. increase the value of the equilibrium constant
B. decrease the value of the equilibrium constant
C. increase the reactant production
D. shift the equilibrium to the left.

In the reaction above, CHCOO- is the ______

A. conjugate base    B. acid    C. base    D. conjugate acid

How many cations will be produced from a solution of potassium aluminium tetraoxosulphate (VI)?

A. 3    B. 4   C. 1   D. 2

Which of the following ¡s NOT an alkali?
A. NH3    B. Mg(OH)2    C. Ca(OH)2    D. NaOH

An effect of thermal pollution on water bodies is that the ______

A. volume of water reduces
B. volume of chemical waste increases
C.. level of oxides of nitrogen increases
D. level of oxygen reduces.

Which of the following is a deliquescent compound?

A. Na2CO3    B. CaCl2     C. CuO .    D. Na2CO3. 10H2O

A chemical reaction in which the hydration energy is greater than the lattice energy is
referred to as _____

A. a spontaneous reaction
B. an endothermic reaction
C. an exothermic reaction
D. a reversible reaction.

The function of zinc electrode in a galvanic cell is that it _______

A. undergoes reduction
B. serves as the positive electrode
C. produces electrons
D. uses up electrons.

CH4(g) + Cl2(g) → CH3CI(s) + HCl(g)

The major factor that influences the rate of the reaction above is ______

A. catalyst    B. temperature    C. concentration    D. light.

The condition required for corrosion to take place is the presence of ______

A. water and carbon (IV) oxide
B. water, carbon (IV) oxide and oxygen
C. oxygen and carbon (1V) oxide
D. water and oxygen.

In the diagram above, X is the ______

A. enthalpy    B. enthalpy change    C. activation energy    D. activated complex.

The diagram above best illustrates the effect of decrease in ______

A. concentration   B. temperature    C. surface area    D. pressure.

MnO-4(aq) + Y + 5Fe2+(aq) - Mn2+ + 5Fe2+(aq) + 4H20

In the equation above, Y is ____

A. 5H+(aq)     B. 4H+(aq)     C. 10H+(aq)     D. 8H+(aq)

Given that M is the mass of a substance deposited during electrolysis and Q is the quantity of electricity consumed, then Faraday’s first law can be written as _________

The impurities formed during the laboratory preparation of chlorine gas are removed by _____

A. H2O    B. NH3    C. H2SO4    D. HCI.

The effect of the presence of impurities such as carbon and sulphur on iron is that they ______

A. give it high tensile strength
B. make it malleable and ductile
C. increase its melting point
D. lower its melting point

A few drops of concentrated HNO3 is added to an unknown solution and boiled for a while. If this
produces a brown solution; the cation present is likely to be _______

A. Pb2+    B. Cu2+    C. Fe3+    D. Fe2+

The bleaching action of chlorine gas is effective due to the presence of _________

A. hydrogen chloride    B. water    C. air    D. oxygen.

In the laboratory preparation of oxygen, dried oxygen is usually collected over

A. hydrochloric acid
B. mercury
C. calcium chloride
D. tetraoxosulphate (VI) acid.

The property of concentrated H2SO4 that makes it suitable for preparing HNO3 is its _______

A. boiling point    B. density     C. oxidizing property    D. dehydrating property.

Bronze is preferred to copper in the making of medals because it ______

A. is stronger    B. can withstand low temperature     C. is lighter     D. has low tensile strength.

The constituent of baking powder that makes the dough to rise is ________

A. NaHCO3    B. NaOH    C. Na2CO3    D. NaCI.

Which of the following compounds is used as a gaseous fuel?

The ability of carbon to form long chains is referred to as _______

A. alkylation    B. acylation    C. catenation    D. carbonation.

Which of the following compounds will undergo polymerization reaction?

A. C2H4    B. C2H5COOH    C. C2H6    D. C2H5OH

UTME Biology - 40 Objective Questions

In Spirogyra, the pyrenoid _______

A. excretes waste products   
B. is suspended by cytoplasmic strands   
C. is mainly used for respiration     
D. usually contains starch

In which of the following groups of animals are fIagella and cilia found?

A. Flatworms    B. Annelids    C. Coelenterates    D. Protozoa

Which of the following is seed bearing?

A. Mosses   B. Whistling pine    C. Algal filaments    D. Liverwort

Each of the following is an arthropod EXCEPT the ______

A. crab   B. spider C. snail D. millipede

In fish the sense organs which detect movements in the water are located within the ______

A. gills  B. operculum   C. nostrils    D. lateral line

Euglena is an autotrophic organism because it ________

A. has flagella
B. has plant and animal features
C. is found in water
D. can manufacture its food

Which of the following is NOT true of Mucor? It _______

A. contains chlorophyll
B. grows saprophytically
C. bears spores in sporangium
D. consists of hyphae

Bryophytes are different from flower because they _____

A. live in moist habitats
B. have no vascular tissues.
C. reproduce sexually and asexually
D. have small leaves

At what stage in the life history of a toad is its mode of breathing similar to that of a fish?

A. Tadpole stage    B. External gill stage    C. Adult stage     D. Internal gill stage

In lower plants like mosses, the structure which performs the functions of roots of higher plants is called _______

A. root hairs    B. rootlets    C. hyphae   D. rhizoids

In an angiosperm leaf, the xylem is ______

A. in separate bundles from the phloem.
B. surrounded by the phloem
C. above the phloem
D. around the phloem

A group of similar cells performing the same function is called ________

A. an organ    B. a system    C. a tissue   D. an organelle

Which of the following is common to a dicotyledonous stem and a monocotyledonous root?

A. Medullary rays    B. Central pith    C. Wide cortex    D. Narrow cortex

Which of the following represents the sequence of protein hydrolysis?

1. Polypeptides
2. Amino acids
3. Proteins
4. Peptones

A. 3 → 1 → 2 → 4
B .3 → 2 → 4 →1
C. 3 → 4 → 2 → 1
D. 3 → 4 → 1 → 2

A. food substance which produces red colouration with Sudan III contains _______

A. protein    B. fat.   C. starch    D. cellufose

If calcium is deficient in food this may cause ______

A. anaemia    B. retarded growth    C. sterility    D. goitre

Partially digested food ready to leave the stomach is referred to as _______

A. chyme     B. curd     C. glycogen      D. paste

The function of lymph nodes is to ______

A. supply oxygen      B. filter out bacteria      C. form red blood cells      D. supply amino acids     

The vein which returns blood from the head and arms to the heart is called ______

A. aorta    B. inferior vena cava    C. superior vena cava    D. pulmonary vein

Blood platelets are important because they _______

A. are amoeboid and nucleated
B. produce antitoxins
C. produce antibodies
D. release thrombin for blood clotting.

If a child can receive blood from all donors, he belongs to the blood group ______

A. O    B. A    C. B    D. AB   E. AS.

Which of the following events does NOT occur during anaerobic respiration of glucose?

A. Muscle cells produce lactic acid
B. Carbon dioxide is produced
C. Milk bacteria produce lactic acid
D. Energy is not produced

Identify which of the following are characteristics of the vertebrate respiratory surface.

1. Moist
2. Vascularized
4 Freely permeable
5. Dry

A. 1, 2, 3    B. 1, 2, 5    C. 2, 3, 5   D. 2, 4, 5

In mammals, the function of the sebaceous gland is to ______

A. produce sweat
B. secrete sodium chloride
C. secrete water
D. produce an oily substance

Which of the following organs regulates the amount of amino acids and glucose in the body?

A. Kidney    B. Liver    C. Pancreas     D. Spleen

Bowman’s capsules are located in the part labelled ______

A. 1    B. 2    C. 3    D. 4    E. 5

Reabsorption of useful materials takes place in the parts labelled ____

A. 1 and 3    B. 2 and 4   C. 5 and 6    D. 6 and 7

Movements and positions of the head in man are detected by the _______

A. cochlea    B. malleus    C. utriculus    D. semicircular canals

The appendicular skeleton is made up of the ______

A. limbs    B. skull and limbs     C. girdles and limbs     D. ulna and radius

The maize grain is a fruit and not a seed because it ________

A. has a large endosperm
B. is formed from an ovary
C. is a monocotyledon
D. has no plumule and radicle

If a flower is protandrous then it _______

A. must be unisexual
B. has an undeveloped androecium
C. can prevent self-pollination
D. must be insect-pollinated

For pollen to be released in Crotalaria the insect must depress the _______

A. wing   B. keel    C. standard   D. antepetalous stame

Irish potato is a _______

A. bulb    B. tap root    C. rhizome   D. root tuber

The characters by which an organism as recognized are termed its _______

A. phenotype    B. genotype   C. morphology    D. anatomy

The hereditary material in a cell is known as ______

A. ADP    B. DNA    C. RNA    D. ATP

A young plant showing yellow leaves is likely to be deficient in ________

A. calcium    B. magnesium   C. potassium    D. boron    E. molybdenum

Germination which results in the cotyledons being brought above ground is called ______

A. hypocotyl   B. epicotyl    C. epigeal    D. hypogeal    E. plumule

The mammalian endocrine system is responsible for _______

A. transmitting impulses
B. regulating body temperature
C. regulating osmotic pressure of blood
D. chemical co-ordination

An old man is likely to be long-sighted because age affects the ______

A. optic nerves    B. retina    C. ciliary muscles    D. cornea

In a mammal, stimulus is transferred from the receptor muscle to the central nervous system
through the _______

A. motor neurons     B. effector muscles     C. dendrites     D. sensory neurons

UTME Use of English - 60 Objective Questions


Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.

Returning home after a decade and half abroad, our Geography master remained incurably addicted to foreign ways and ideas for years after landing here. He would forever stick to his theory of Africans suffering from a curse inflicted on them by the Almighty God for some heinous sins committed centuries ago. He would, in support of this theory, ask listeners: "Why would our mosquito inflict deadly malaria on us whereas the British mosquito does not bite? Why aren't there poisonous snakes in Britain whereas here most snakes are deadly? Why should the deadly sickle cell disease be peculiar to the black race?"

Of course, he hardly waits for answers to these and similar questions before jumping to the same inevitable conclusion. However, he met his match one day when a new student joined the class and heard the litany we were used to. The new boy calmly said, "Sir, I happen to know a few white men who suffer from the sickle cell disease; some are Italians and some are Spanish. The mosquito is equally deadly in India, South-east Asian Countries and South America. The United States and some other South American 5 Countries have their deadly snakes. And, Sir, I know many white men, some of them British, who would prefer our brilliant sunshine to their horribly cold winter." And he sat down.

I had never, before that day, seen our master so consumed with anger. He directed a burning look at the poor boy, who had no answer to this new battle. Without as much as saying a single word, the master stalked out of the classroom. Needless to say, our anger was turned on the new boy, who had decided to rock the boat without taking the time to sound the water. A delegation was sent to the master to apologise to him. He was appeased. But we all noticed something rather unusual thereafter never again did he dwell on the issue of Africans being the cursed People.

1. What point of view is the Geography master fond of advancing?

A. Africans are infested with all kinds of problem
B. Only the white men are free from deadly diseases
C. The Almighty God is punishing Africans for sins they committed long ago.
D. God did not curse the white people.

2. Which of the following arguments did he not use to support his vies?

A. In Africa, the mosquito causes deadly malaria whereas in Britain, it doesn't bite or cause malaria
B. There is malaria both in Britain and in African Countries
C. The snakes in Africa are deadly but those in Britain are harmless
D. The sickle cell disease is peculiar to the black race.

3. "...rock the boat" What figure of speech is this expression?

A. Simile    B. Metaphor    C. Personification    D. Hyperbole

4. What extra argument (lid the new boy offer after countering each of vie master's points?

A. There are problems especially in Africa
B. There are deadly snakes be the in America and Africa
C. There are harmless snakes in Britain
D. Many white men prefer the African climate to their own.

5. Why do you think the master fought back with his look rather than with further argument?

A. He knew that the boy's points were valid
B. He had answers to the boy's argument
C. He went out to sort for the boy's argument
D. He already made up his mind on his points.

6. "...who had no answer to this new battle".

What grammatical name is given to the above passage expression as it is used in the passage?

A. (non-defining) relative clause   B. Adverbial clause   C. Subordinate clause   D. Main clause

Passage B

The passage below has gaps immediately following each gap, four options are provided. Choose the most appropriate option for each gap.

Mankind has been ravaged by many virus and .....7......[A. germ     B. bacterial     C. dirty     D. mosquito]

.......diseases such as measles, but tuberculosis, diarrhoea and many others including ... 8.......[A. catarrh     B. runny-nose     C. headache     D. influenza]

known also as the ... 9... cold. [A. common     B. sporadic     C. universal     D. regular].

Outbreaks of many of these diseases have been brought under control in the last fifty years. Some ..........10........ [A. pains    B. fevers     C. infection     D. traces]

.........like measles and whooping cough still pose a great danger to younger children. The ...11.... [A. symptoms    B. appearance    C. feels     D. signs]

of measles are more easily ... 12... [A. diagnosed B. treated C. dealt with a handled] than those of whooping cough.

Unlike that of many others, the virus of measles more easily remain ...13... [A. unchanged B. constant C. undiscovered D. erratic] for hundreds of years.

However, once you have had an ...14...[A. epidemic B. encounter C. attack D. indisposition] of this dreadful disease,

you develop an ... 15... [ A. impurity    B. armour    C. immunity    D. ability] which is almost complete and long lasting.

Modern science has made available ...... 16 .....[A. injections B. medicine C. tablets D. vaccines] to prevent many childhood diseases

and this is the only guarantee of ... 17... [A. freedom    B. discharge    C. cure    D. protection] from these scourges.

More effective treatment of complication arising from these childhood diseases using penicillin and other ...18... [A. relievers B. treatments C. antibiotics D. Pills] has also helped to reduce the mortality rate among children.

It is universally accepted that good...20... [A. health    B. body    C. sense    D. development] is the right of every human being and children.

You do not have to die from these diseases which wiped out the whole ...21 ...[A. countries B. areas C. communities D. states] in the middle Ages.

We have today ...22... [A. bitter    B. lovely    C. potent    D. marvelous] drugs which give protection against most childhood diseases.

After each of the following sentences, a list of possible interpretations of the sentence is given. Choose the interpretation that you consider appropriate for each sentence.

19. When asked to state her side of the story, Bunmi started by beating about the bush. This means that Bunmi

A. went straight to the point
B. was lost in great thought
C. followed a bush path
D. approached the subject without coming to the point.

20. The amount he donated was small. He said it was his widow's mite. This means that

A. he was a widow
B. he was misery.
C. it was all he could honestly afford
D. he could have given more.

21. The friendship between Segun and Shehu has turned sour. This means that Segun and Shehu are

A. no longer friends
B. stilt friends
C. better friends now
D. getting to understand each other.

22. The driver smelled a rat when the policemen asked him to stop. It means that the driver was

A. reckless   B. auspicious   C. careful   D. offensive.

23. The students were as Wised to face their studies and let the sleeping dog lie. This means that the students shout

A. obey the authorities
B. organise them properly
C. leave matters as they are now
D. be as watchful as sleeping dogs.

28. From the way Ngozi behaves, it is obvious she is a greenhorn. "This means that Ngozi is ______

A. arrogant   B. cautious   C. inexperienced   D. uncivilised.

30. Since I found out his hypocritical nature, I have been keeping him at arm's length. This mean that I ___

A. avoid being similar with him
B. ignore his advice
C. report him to the authority
D. stop visiting him.

I knew Okoronkwo's father very well and I must say that his son is a chip off the old block. Thy means that Okoronkwo

A. has Chosen the game career as its father
B. is very much like his father
C. is a I extremely different sort of person from his lather.
D. has taken up a different profession from his father's.

The debating team was warned to make convincing points and not to play to the gallery. This means that the team should not

A. be selfish
B. underrate opponents
C. be over-confident
D. attempt to win cheap popularity.

From these questions, choose the options opposite in meaning to the words or phrases in italics.

24. I am happy to inform you that your boys are conscientious

A. industrious    B. carefree      C. careful      D. corrupt

25. My father is a very prosperous businessman.

A. ungrateful   B. unscrupulous   C. unskilled   D. unsuccessful

26. My hostess greeted her guest in a very relaxed manner

A. energetic   B. athletic   C. stiff   D. perplexed

27. Ayo takes his studies rather lightly

A. humorously   B. tediously   C. carefully   D. seriously

28. The doctor was very gentle with his patients in the examining room

A. harsh   B. rude   C. rough   D. unkind

29. The President took exception to the ignoble role the young man played in the matter

A. honourable    B. embarrassing   C dishonourable   D. extraordinary

30. The man who had been seriously ill was convalescing at a seaside resort.

A. regaining health   B. deteriorating in health   C. recuperating   D. relaxing

31. For millions of years, the world resources have remained boundless

A. unlimited   B. scarce   C. indomitable   D. limited

32. The difference between the experimental procedures was imperceptible to me

A. negligible   B. significant   C. obvious   D. obscure

33. His anti-apathy to religion ideas makes him unpopular

A. remedy   B. Consciousness   C. hostility   D. receptiveness

For the questions, choose the options that best complete the gap(s).

34. He was _____  by the trickster.

A. assisted    B. duped    C. enjoined     D. encouraged

35. When the soldiers saw that resistance was _______, they stopped fighting

A. inadequate     B. inefficient     C. futile     D. successful

36. You should read all the _______ carefully before you decide where to go on holiday.

A. brochures     B. prospectus     C. tickets    D. handouts

37. The Emir and Conqueror of the enemy territories _______ next week.

A. arrives     B. are to arrive     C. arrive     D. are arriving

38. We ought to have visited the Governor, _______ ?

A. isn't it    B. oughtn't we    C. shouldn't we    D. haven't

39. He didn't sense Obi's presence in the room, did he? ________

A. yes, he did     B. No, he did     C. Yes, he didn't     D. No, he didn't

40. You can stay here __________  as you are quiet.

A. as long     B. so long     C. in a much     D. for as long

In each of these questions, choose the option nearest in meaning to the word(s) or phrase in italics.

41. The witness averred that she had seen Dosun at the scene of the crime

A. argued     B. confirmed     C. denied     D. affirmed

42. The high cost of living these days calls for a lot of frugality

A. extravagance    B. economy    C. recklessness    D. prudence.

43. Tunde's reaction underscores the points I was making.

A. justifies     B. summarizes     C. emphasizes     D. clarifies

44. Everyone admired the manager's adroit handling of the crisis in the company

A. emphasised    B. skillful    C. tactless    D. clumsy

45. The principal took exception to the ignoble role the teacher play in the matter

A. embarrassing    B. honourable    C. extraordinary D. dishonourable

In each of these questions, choose the option that has the same vowel sound as the one represented by the letter(s) underlined.

46. key

A. sit     B. bet    C. seat    D. tread

47. taught

A. law     B. aunt     C. count    D. plateau

In each of these questions, choose the appropriate stress Item from the options. The syllables are written in capital letters.

48. comfortable

A. COMfortable    B. comFORtable    C. comfortaBLE    D. comforTABLE

49. incapacitate

A. inCApacitate     B. incaPAcitate     C. INcapacitate     D. incapaciTATE.

50. encouragement

A. Encouragement     B. enCOUragement     C. encouRAgement     D. encouragement

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