UTME CBT Practice Mock Tests – Faculty of Social Sciences – (Maths; Econs; Govt; Eng) – Set 2

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  1. You are to attempt 180 Objectives Questions ONLY in the following UTME subjects
    Use of English
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UTME Mathematics - 40 Questions

Without using the table, simplify 

A. 3     B. -3     C. \frac{3}{4}     D. \frac{1}{4}


A.       B.       C. a      D.

If x4 - kx3 + 10x2 + lx - 3 is divisible by (x - 1) and if when it is divided by (x + 2) the remainder is 27, find the constants k and l.

A. k = -7, l = - 15      B. k = -15, l = -7      C. k = -\frac{21}{5}, l = -\frac{61}{5}      D. k = -\frac{5}{3}, l = \frac{19}{3}

The angle of elevation of the top of a vertical tower from a point A on the ground is 60°. From a point B, 2 units of distance further away from the foot of the tower, the angle of elevation of the top of the tower is 45°. Find the distance of A from the foot of the tower.

A. 3 +       B. 5 +       C. 3 -       D. 1 +

The vectors a and b are given in terms of two perpendicular unit vectors i and j on a plane by a = 2i - 3j
b = -i + 2j .

Find the magnitude of the vector a + 3b

A. 2     B. 4     C.      D.

In the figure below ΔABC and ΔAED are in adjacent planes. AB = AC = 5cm, BC = 6cm and ∠ADE = 60°, then AE is equal to _____

A.      B.      C.      D.

Add the same number to the numerator and denominator of  \frac{3}{18} . If the resulting fraction is  \frac{1}{2} , then the number added is ______

A. 13      B. 14      C. 15      D. 12

In a circle of radius 10 cm, a cord of length 10cm is x cm from its centre where x is ______

A.       B.       C. 10      D.

The smallest number such that when it is divided by 8 has a remainder of 6 and when it is divided by 9, has a remainder of 7 is ______

A. 387     B. 493     C. 70     D. 441

The mean of the numbers 1.2, 1.0, 0.9, 1.4, 0.8, 0.8, 1.2 and 1.1 is ________.

A. 1.5     B. 0.8     C. 1.0     D. 1.05.

(1.28 x 104) ÷ (6.4 x 102) equals ______

A. 2 x 10-5     B. 2 x 10-1     C. 2 x 10o     D. 2 x 101

If the value of π is taken as  \frac{22}{7}  the area of a semicircle of diameter 42 m is _______

A. 5544 m2     B. 693 m2     C. 132 m2     D. 264 m2

(3.2)2 - (1:8)2 equals _____

A. 7.0     B. 2.56     C. 13.48     D. 2.0

In PQR, PQ = 10cm, QR = 8cm and RP = 6cm, the perpendicular RS is drawn from R to PQ. Find the length of RS.

A. 4 cm     B.   cm     C. \frac{10}{7} cm     D. 4.8 cm

After getting a rise of 15%, a man’s new monthly salary is N345. How much per month did he earn before the increase?

A. N330     B. N396.75     C. N300     D. N293.25

In base ten, the number 101101 (base 2) equals _______

A. 15     B. 4     C. 45     D. 32

The annual profit of a transport business were divided between the two partners A and B in the ratio 3:5. If B received N 3000 more than A, the total profit was _______

A. N 5000 B. N 1800 C. N 12000 D. N 24000

In this figure, PQRS is a parallelogram, PS = PT and ∠PST = 55o . The size of ∠PQR is _____

A. 105o     B. 120o     C. 115o.     D. 110o

If O is the centre of the circle, ∠POS equals ______

A. 70o    B. 75o     C. 105o    D. 150o

x is directly proportional to y and inversely proportional to z. If x = 9 when y = 24 and z = 8, what is the value of x when y = 5 and z = 6

A.  \frac{5}{6}      B. 11      C.  3\frac{3}{5}      D. 2\frac{1}{2}

The solution of he equation x2 - 2x  is _____

A. x = 0 or 2     B. x = -2 or 4     C. x = 2     D. x = -4

A trader goes to Ghana for y days with Y cedìs. For the first x days, he spends X cedis per day. The amount he has to spend per day for the rest of his stay is  _____

A.       B.       C.       D.

In the figure below PQ and QR are chords of the circle PQR. QRS is a straight line and PR equals to RS. ∠PSR is 20o. What s the size of ∠POQ?

A. 70o     B. 90o     C. 80o     D. 40o

Multiply (3x + 5y + 4z) by (2x - 3y + z)

A. 6x2 + xy - 15y2 + 4z2 + 11xz - 7yz
B. 6x2 + 3xy - 15y2 + 4z2 + 11xz - 5yz
C. 6x2 + 3xy - 15y2 + 4z2 + 13xy - 8yz
D. 6x2 + 5xy - 15y + 4z2 + 13xy + 6yz

A square of cardboard is taped at the perimeter by a piece of ribbon 20cm long. What is the area of the board?

A. 20 sq.cm     B. 25 sq.cm      C. 36sq.cm     D. 100 sq.cm

Rationalize the denominator of the expression 





In the figure below PQ is parallel to SR, QS bisects ∠PSR, ∠PQS is 65o and ∠RPS is 20o.

What is the size of ∠PRS? 

A. 45o      B. 35o      C. 40o      D. 30o


A. 52x-1     B. 5x+2      C. 5-5      D. 5x+1

A steel ball of radius 1 cm is dropped into a cylinder of radius 2cm and height 4cm. If the cylinder is now filled with water, what is the volume of the water in the cylinder?

A. \frac{44}{3} π cm3      B. 12π cm3       C. \frac{25}{3} π  cm3       D. \frac{43}{3} π  cm3


A.      B.      C.      D.

A ladder resting on a vertical wall makes an angle whose tangent is 2.4 with the ground. If the distance between the foot of the ladder and the wall is 50cm,what is the length of the ladder?

A. 1m     B. 1.3m     C.1.2m     D. .9m


A. \frac{1}{6}     B. \frac{13}{20}     C. \frac{11}{30}     D. \frac{9}{4}

One of the following statements is wrong. Which is it?

A. If a triangle is equiangular then it is also equilateral
B. If a triangle is equilateral then it is also equiangular.
C. If two triangles are congruent, then they are also similar
D. If two triangles are similar then they are also congruent

PQRS is a cyclic quadrilateral with PQ as diameter of the circle. If ∠PQS 15o find ∠QRS

A. 75o     B. 37 ½o     C. 127½o     D. 105o

Make c the subject of the equation a(b + c) + \frac{5}{d} - 2 = 0

A. c =       B. c =       C. c =       D. c =

Which of the values of the variable x, (a) x = 0, (b) x = -3, (c) x = 9, satisfy the inequalities

0 < ≤ - 2 

A. (a), (b), (c)      B. (b), (c) only     C. (C) only      D. None of (a), (b), (c)

On each market day Mrs. Bassey walks to the market from her home at a steady speed. This journey normally takes her 2 hours to complete. She finds, however, that by increasing her usual speed by 1km/hr she can save 20 minutes. Find her usual speed in km/hr.

A.  1\frac{2}{3}    B. 2    C. 5    D. 6

Solve the simultaneous linear equation

2x + 5y = 11
7x + 4y = 2

A. x = -8, y = 1     B. x = -2, y = 4     C. x = 2, y = -3     D. x = - \frac{34}{27} ,  y = \frac{73}{27}

If x3 - 12x - 6 = 0 has x = -2 as a solution, then the equation has ______

A. x = -4 as a solution also
B. 3 roots all different
C. 3 roots with two equal and third different
D. 3 roots all equal

UTME Use of English - 60 Questions

COMPREHENSION: Read each passage carefully and answer the questions that follow It.


In 1962, a team of scientists produced a special radio station that had a range of fifteen miles. Even though communication was being accomplished in space at a range of more than a million times this distance, the new radio station caused much excitement among scientists. The reason: its power supply was a ‘battery’ made of bacteria. For the first time, practical amounts of electricity were being produced by a form of life and put to use. ‘Biocell’ the new power supply had a liquid fuel containing tiny forms of life that changed the fuel directly into electric energy.

This was far more than an interesting experiment. The biocell is being developed as producer of electricity for radios, for signals to guide ships, for lighting and for other uses. Though the working biocell is only a few years old, some scientists feel that it will one day produce power cheaply as is now being done by other methods, and that the biocell will use materials that would otherwise be considered a waste. Early biocells were powered with sugar, but a wide range of fuels can be used. Work is being done using sea water to feed the bacteria.

Electricity from living cells is no new idea. Man experienced the strange ‘shock’ produced by some fish even before electricity was really discovered. Then in time, there were other discoveries. Benjamin Franklin found that lightning in the sky was electricity. Lulgi Galvani found some electricity in the muscles and nerves of animals.

But the African catfish produces far more electricity than most other living creatures. And another fish, the electric eel, well named, for it has an even greater electric charge. Research works also discovered that even humans produce small amount of electricity in their bodies. Our hearts produce a very small amount that can be measured, so do our brains. The biocell is completely new in the field of power production and, as yet, no mass-produced models have begun to replace the older types of batteries. It might be wondered, then, what the excitement is all about

1. The writers posture, as conveyed in the statement Electricity from living cells is no new idea, can be described as ______

A. ineffectual B. contentious C. logical D. unguarded.

2. Which of the following is true according to the passage?

A. Scientists felt that biocells would produce very costly energy.
B. Biocells, at the beginning, derived their energy from sugar.
C. Sugar and fuel were initially used as sources of energy for biocells.
D. Biocells were forms of power used by the scientists.

3. The inventors of biocell justified the need for it by saying that it would

A. develop ways for changing biocelis into fuel for use
B. yield a source of energy without much spending
C. produce electricity for ad types of machines
D. produce signals to guide all ships and other vessels.

4. According to the passage, electricity was first discovered in ____

A. hearts and brains    B. muscles of animals    C. lightning    D. fish.


The passage below has gaps numbered. Immediately following each gap, four options are provided. Choose the most appropriate option for each gap.

Believe it or not, change is to human existence what the blood is to the human body. We live in an era of amazing ... 5. ..[A. well-defined B. fast-paced C. favourable D. social] change spawned by advancing technology and industrialization.

However, man’s ... 6... [A. knowledge of B. attitude to C. commitment to D. opinion of]

promoting and defending change in a deliberate effort to establish ...7... [A. customs B. companies C. trade-zones D. variations]

that stimulate advancement for man’s concern is proving unfavourable to the climate with threatening . . . 8. . [A. repercussions    B. clouds    C. pressure    D. implication].

Human-induced climate change has awakened widespread concern across the globe. As a matter of fact, climate change is now ...9... [A. an acceptable B. aforemost C. the only D. the last] global issue.

It is a major test of Africa’s ...10... [A. popularity B. energy C. ingenuity D. incapability].

The fourth Assessment Report (AR4) of the Intergovernmental Panel of Climate Change (IPCC) confirmed that human actions are changing the earth’s climate and creating major disturbances in human . . . 11. . . [A. geography B. societies C. systems D. life] and ecosystems.

The IPCC reports that the world has warmed by an average of 0.76°C since pre-industrial times. The rising global ..12... [A. command B. demand C. warning D. supply] for energy and the adverse changes in the climate put the earth and its inhabitants in a catch situation.

Again, if the effects of climate change on each were commensurate with the level of greenhouse  ...... .13........ [A. structure B. paints C. emulsion D. emissions] it spews out, perhaps Africa would have been spared and would probably be just an amused spectator.

But as it is, this is not the case. Here again, we see well-meaning global citizens appealing for the rest of the world to take responsibility for the problems of Africa, a strategy that cannot, thus far, be termed .. .14... [A. notable B. liable C. credible D. flexible].

In each of questions below, select the option that best explains the information conveyed in the sentence.

15. If he were here, it could be more fun.

A. He was expected but did not show up to make the occasion lively.
B. There was no fun because he was not present
C. He did not show up and so the occasion lacked much fun.
D. He was being expected to supply more fun.

16. The secretary said that the postponement of the meeting was due to unforeseen circumstances.

A. The date of the meeting was shifted as a result of unexpected reasons.
B. The meeting’s date was put off for strange reasons.
C. The meeting was called as a result of obstacles hitherto unknown.
D. The meeting broke off as a result of unusual difficulties.

17. The hunter has a bird’s-eye view of the animals.

A. He views animals from a high position
B. He views the bird’s eye
C. He views the birds on tree with one eye.
D. He watches animals and birds closely.

18. Even though Susan was the last in the examination, her result wasn’t too different from what had been expected.

A. Her result was poor.
B. Her result was a disappointment
C. Her result was as expected
D. She had not been serious with her studies.

19. Mrs. Adasu does all her work with more haste, less speed.

A. She accepts whatever she does with more haste and speed.
B. She approaches whatever she does hurriedly.
C. She addresses everything she does very quickly to avoid mistakes
D. She does everything carefully to avoid mistakes.

In each of questions below, choose the option nearest in meaning to the word or phrases in italics.

20. Since its inception in 1983, the newspaper has attracted thousands of readers.

A. renaissance    B. coming    C. commencement    D. publication.

21. Mrs. Asio wanted her sister to stop being so detached.

A. friendly    B. careless    C. indifferent    D. passionate

22. Lantana dwelt in a ruined cottage on the hillside.

A. sat    B. worked    C. slept    D. lived.

23. The mistake brought the show to an ignominious end.

A. a good    B. a palatable    C. a disgraceful    D. a satisfactory.

24. He compliments me on my way of doing things.

A. complements    B. imitates    C. disgusts    D. praises.

25. The girl is angry with her friend who had ensnared her into this relationship.

A. tricked    B. encouraged    C. forced    D. enslaved.

26. Their new house was roofed with corrugated sheets.

A. folded    B. iron    C. aluminium    D. corrupted.

27. The stockbroker said it was an astute move to sell the shares then.

A. a bad    B. a shrewd    C. an unprofitable    D. an insincere.

28. The principal described Oche as the most tactful person he had ever worked with.

A. passionate    B. discreet    C. hard-working    D. innovative.

29. The old woman is suffering from dementia.

A. lucidity    B. senility    C. insanity    D. sagacity.

30. Some drugs have a deleterious effect on a child’s development

A. debilitating    B. helpful    C. harmful    D. healing.

31. Fila has always been described as belligerent.

A. beautiful    B. attractive    C. combative    D. innocent

32. Laraba saw a forlorn little figure sitting outside the class.

A. wise and intelligent    B. lonely and unhappy    C. smart and healthy    D. short and ugly.

33. The circular supersedes all previous correspondence on the matter.

A. supports    B. displaces    C. eliminates    D. circumvents

In each of questions below, choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the word or phrase in italics.

30. The warring communities were coerced into negotiating a settlement.

A. driven    B. compelled    C. persuaded    D. pressured.

31. His father served as a mercenary in the army.

A. preacher    B. regular    C. recruit    D. officer.

32. Jummai is cruel to her husband.

A. harsh    B. brutal    C. passionate    D. ferocious.

33. The teacher who beat the student was treated with mercy.

A. disrespect    B. contempt    C. vengeance    D. kindness.

34. His wife hates his garrulous attitude.

A. outspoken    B. unfriendly    C. reticent    D. thoughtful.

35. Agoshito is a callow youth’, said the teacher.

A. an ignorant    B. an experienced    C. an idle    D. an organized.

36. What you are asking me to do is a herculean task.

A. a strenuous    B. a demanding    C. a lovely    D. an easy.

37. Nkechi was a novice when she was first employed.

A. manager    B. clerk    C. supervisor    D. professional.

38. ‘I do not trust him’, he said, in a rare moment of candour.

A. reproach    B. dishonesty    C. frankness    D. fairness.

39. Mrs Akunilo looks anaemic today.

A. strange    B. sick    C. weak    D. strong.

45. It is inconceivable that the sun shone in the night

A. credible    B. unthinkable    C. impossible    D. contestable.

46. She only gives a superficial impression of warmth and friendliness.

A. a strong    B. a fake    C. a deep    D. an unrealistic.

47. As a prudent businessman, Adayi does not leave anything to chance. .

A. frugal    B. shrewd    C. careless    D. unsuccessful.

48. His antipathy affected the growth of his business.

A. hatred    B. receptiveness    C. loyalty    D. hostility.

In each of questions 66 to 85 choose the option that best completes the gap.

40. When his car tyre …….... on the way, he did not know what to do.

A. has burst     B. had burst     C. bursted     D. burst.

41. Lami’s father ... as a gardener when he was young, but now he is a driver.

A. had been working    B. use to work C. has worked D. used to work.

42. ... he switches on the light the shadow disappears.

A. Whenever     B. Except     C. Since     D. Until.

43. It is important that you clear the refuse in front of your house every .........

A. fourtnight     B. fortnight     C. fourthnight     D. forthnight.

44. The policemen became suspicious as the hoodlums ......... in their office.

A. ferreted     B. ferretted     C. ferreted about     D. ferretted about.

45. Suara needn’t come with us, ...? .

A. does she     B. will she     C. can she     D. need she.

In each of questions below, choose the option that has the same vowel sound as the one represented by the letter(s) underlined.

46. bubble

A. guy     B. bull     C. bumper     D. gurgle

47. weight

A. whale     B. white     C. whet     D. wrythe

48. leach

A. gear    B. cedar    C. cheer    D. death

In each of questions below, choose the appropriate stress pattern from the options. The syllables are written in capital letters.

49. termination

A. terminaTION    B. TERmination     C. termiNAtion     D. terMInation

50. meditative

A. meDItative    B. mediTAtive    C. MEditative    D. meditaTIVE.

UTME Economics - 40 Questions

The elasticity of supply of perishable goods is _______

(A) unitary   (B) inelastic   (C) zero  (D) elastic.

The demand for factors of production is an example of ______

(A) joint demand    (B) competitive demand    (C) derived demand   (D) composite demand.

In the diagram above, the marginal rate of substitution of X for Y for a movement from S to T is ____

(A) 13:3   (B) 1:5   (C) 18:4   (D) 5:1.

A student has N 30.00 with which to buy a ruler costing N 18.00 and an exercise book costing N 25.00. If he buys the exercise book, his opportunity cost is _____

(A) the ruler    (B) the exercise book    (C) N 25.00    (D) N 18.00

A shift in supply curve indicates that a different quantity will be supplied at each possible price because

(A) consumers are will to pay higher prices
(B) supply is facing competition
(C) other factors than prices have changed
(D) price has changed.

In the pie chart above, the percentage for children is equivalent to ______

(A) 288o    (B) 72o   (C) 90o   (D) 144o.

If goods p and Q are purchased by a consumer, a fall in the price of P with the price of Q unchanged will cause the budget line to _____

(A) shift parallel inwards
(B) rotate outwards away from the origin
(C) rotate inwards towards the origin
(D) shift parallel outwards.

One of the reasons for an exceptional demand curve is the ______

(A) expectation of a future change in price
(B) availability of credit facilities
(C) change in the price of the commodity
(D) availability of substitutes.

A scientific approach in economic analysis entails ______

(A) a deductive method only
(B) both inductive and normative methods
(C) a normative method only
(D) both inductive and deductive methods.

In a centrally planned economy, the economic problem of deciding what to produce is dependent on ______

(A) average profit   (B) state command   (C) average cost   (D) relative prices.

The solution to the problem of double coincidence of wants requires a buyer and a seller whose demands are precisely _______

(A) competitive    (B) composite   (C) supplementary   (D) complementary.

The stock exchange is a market for the buying and selling of ______

(A) monetary instruments   (B) new shares   (C) existing shares   (D) treasury bills.

National income estimates can be used to ______

(A) differentiate between the rich and the poor in a country
(B) prepare a country’s annual budget
(C) project the level of a country’s economic development
(D) compare a country’s growth rate with that of another over a period of time.

In Nigeria, the bank that can correctly be described as a unit bank is ______

(A) a the central bank   (B) people’s bank   (C) mortgage bank   (D) community bank.

If the country’s GNP in the current year is N 65 billion and the GNP in the base year is N 50 billion, the GNP deflator is ______

(A) 130.0   (B) 30.0   (C) 15.0   (D) 1.3.

In a closed economy, the marginal propensity to consume is 0.6 and the average propensity to consume is 0.8. The value of the multiplier is ______

(A) 2.5   (B) 2.6   (C) 2.7   (D) 2.4

Insurance companies invest mainly in instruments traded on the _______

(A) capital market   (B) commodity market   (C) money market   (D) open market.

Liquidity preference refers to the ______

(A) need to borrow money for short periods to meet some temporary crises
(B) wish to hold more funds for precautionary purposes
(C) need to increase the money supply in order to lower the interest rate
(D) demand to hold money as assets rather than as stocks.

Creeping inflation implies that there is a _______

(A) gentle and persistent increase in the general price level
(B) rapid and persistent increase In the general price level
(C) gentle but not permanent increase in the general price level
(D) rapid but not permanent increase in the general price level

The primary objective of the NDIC is to ______

(A) give protection to the CBN against fraud
(B) provide regulation guiding the finance houses
(C) give protection to banks against fraud
(D) give protection to bank depositors.

Excess demand inflation can be controlled through ______

(A) contractionary fiscal policy
(B) contractionary trade policy
(C) expansionary fiscal policy
(D) expansionary monetary policy.

The middlemen in the chain of distribution are _______

(A) manufacturers and consumers
(B) wholesalers and retailers
(C) consumers and wholesales
(D) retailers and consumers.

If the growth rate of available resources continuously outpaces that of the population,
a country will eventually experience _______

(A) maximum population   (B) under-population   (C) over-population   (D) optimum population.

The equilibrium wage in an economy is determined by the ______

(A) public service   (B) workers’ union   (C) rate of inflation   (D) supply and demand for labour.

The Malthusian theory of population growth is often said to be ________

(A) ambiguous    (B) oversimplified   (C) pessimistic    (D) optimistic.

Improved labour efficiency can be measured by _____

(A) an increase in output-input ratio
(B) a decrease in output-input ratio
(C) the constancy in input-output ratio
(D) an increase in input-output ratio.

As a firm increases its output, the average fixed cost _______

(A) tends to rise continuously
(B) remains constant
(C) rises and then falls
(D) tends to decrease continuously.

In the diagram above, what is the excess demand at the price of N 60?

(A) 200   (B) 300   (C) 600   (D) 100.

The short-run equilibrium output for a monopolist is determined by the _______

(A) highest point on the total revenue curve
(B) minimum point on the average cost curve
(C) intersection of the average revenue and average cost curves
(D) intersection of the marginal cost and marginal revenue curves.

The benefits that accrue to a firm as a result of an improvement in the industry it belongs to are called _____

(A) internal economies of scale
(B) economies of scale
(C) market economies
(D) external economies of scale.

In the short run, a firm’s marginal cost curve above the point of shut-down is its _______

(A) demand curve   (B) revenue curve   (C) cost curve  (D) supply curve.

The economic policy of deregulation is aimed at encouraging _______

(A) a monopolistic market structure
(B) a duopolistic market structure
(C) a competitive market structure
(D) an oligopolistic market structure.

Under conditions of perfect competition, a firm’s supply curve is determined by its ______

(A) total cost curve   (B) marginal cost curve   (C) variable cost curve   (D) fixed cost curve.

The effect of an increase in demand for a commodity accompanied by a decrease in supply will be to _____

(A) raise the price of the commodity and affect the quantity in an indeterminate way
(B) decrease the equilibrum quantity and affect the price in an intermediate way
(C) raise its price as well as the equilibrum quantity
(D) lower its price while affecting the equilibrum quantity in an indeterminate way

External finance for a limited liability company is mainly sourced through ______

(A) the leasing of equipment   (B) the issuing of shares   (C) trade credits   (D) bank loans

Some of the key indicators of underdevelopment in a country are _______

(A) poverty, high level of literacy and low income
(B) poverty, low level of literacy and low income
(C) low level of literacy, low income and poverty
(D) poverty, low income and low unemployment level

One of the roles of the NNPC in the production and refining of crude oil is to ______

(A) secure maximum government revenue and regulate price
(B) prevent the smuggling of petroleum products
(C) satisfy the domestic consumption of petroleum products
(D) protect the local operators in the petroleum industry.

Which of the following yields more revenue to Nigeria?

(A) value added tax  (B) royalties   (C) direct tax   (D) indirect tax.

Import substitution aims at ______

(A) substituting agricultural products with industrial ones
(B) substituting imports with agricultural exports
(C) the diversification of industries
(D) improving the balance of payments.

UTME Government - 40 Questions

In the legislative process, a bill is a _____

A. motion accepted for debate
B. motion rejected after debate
C. proposal before the legislature
D. law passed by the legislature

One of the advantages of a bicameral over a unicameral legislature is that it _____

A. is cheap to maintain
B. promotes social equality
C. takes less time for bills to be passed
D. prevents the passage of ill-considered bills.

The fundamental rights of citizens include rights to ______

A. free education, employment and freedom of thought
B. life, speech and association
C. life, liberty and property
D. association, property and social security

The manipulation of boundaries of constituencies in order to win more seats is called ______

A. devolution   B. rigging   C. gerrymandering   D. delimitation

One argument against a multi-party system is the ______

A. encouragement of opposition and instability
B. banning of interest groups
C. inability to attract foreign assistance
D. high cost of conducting elections

Association interest groups are organized to ______

A. further the interests of member
B. specifically lobby the government
C. support the government
D. achieve goals affecting other associations.

Public opinion is a view that is _____

A. held by the majority
B. active in the public realm
C. widely publicized
D. no longer a secret

The political neutrality of civil servants implies that they _____

A. are not allowed to join any organization or group
B. have no dealings with politicians
C. are not allowed to be involved in partisan politics
D. are not allowed to vote

The idea of making the civil service permanent, neutral and anonymous is to ____

A. enhance efficiency is administration
B. ensure loyalty and support
C. prevent opposition to government
D. make civil servants a functional elite

The Western Zone of the Sokoto Caliphate was administered from _____

A. Kebbi    B. Ilorin    C. Bida   D. Gwanda

Some pre-colonial Nigerian societies are described as stateless because _____

A. they had no formal governmental institution
B. they had no definite political boundaries
C. their population was too small
D. they were not independence

The method used by the British to facilitate the administration of Southern Nigeria was

A. Persuasion    B. dialogue    C. divide and rule    D. trade concession

A major function of the Warrant Chiefs was to ________

A. prevent tribal wars
B. supervise native courts and markets
C. stop ritual killings
D. take charge of local administration

After 1945, the demand of African nationalist changed from reform to independence because _____

A. colonial rule became less oppressive
B. colonial rule was in disarray
C. the Second World War boosted their morale
D. the Second World War enhanced colonial rule.

When Nigeria achieved Independence in 1960, the Head of State was the _____

A. President    B. Prime Minister    C. Governor-General   D. Queen of England

The central legislature of Nigeria became bicameral in _____

A. 1945   B. 1951   C. 1959   D. 1963.

Which of these constitutions recognized local government as a third tier of government in Nigeria?

A. 1946 Constitution   B. 1960 Constitution   C. 1963 Constitution   D. 1979 Constitution

Under the 1963 Constitution, items not listed in the exclusive and concurrent lists were within the exclusive competence of the

A. executive   B. federal parliament   C. regional legislatures   D. judiciary

Before Nigeria became a Republic, the highest body charged with the administration of justice was the

A. Privy Council   B. High Court   C. Supreme Court   D. Court of Appeal

The equivalent of a commissioner at the local government level is the _____

A. Executive Chairman   B. Secretary   C. Councilor   D. Supervisory Councilor

The independent National Electoral Commission has the power to prepare and maintain the register of

A. political parties    B. constituencies    C. voters   D. electoral candidate

The President of Nigeria is advised on the sovereignty and territorial integrity of the country by the ____

A. National Security Council
B. National Defence Council
C. Council of State
D. Federal Executive Council

The Nigerian Youth Movement collapsed as a result of _____

A. its failure to win election
B. shortage of funds to run its affairs
C. the harassment of its leadership by government
D. the breakup of its leadership

The first restructuring of the Nigerian federation took place with the ____

A. creation of the Mid-West Region in 1963
B. abolition of federalism in 1966
C. military counter-coup of 1966
D. creation of states in 1967

The land Use Decree of 1978 vested the ownership of land in Nigeria in the ____

A. local Chiefs    B. local Government    C. State Government    D. Federal Government

The main source of financing local government in Nigeria is ____

A. internal revenue generation
B. Statutory Revenue Allocation
C. special state grants
D. grants-in-aid.

The most remarkable legacy of the 1976 Local Government Reform in Nigeria was the introduction of

A. the office of Sole Administrators
B. caretaker management committee
C. uniformity in structure and function
D. the third tier of government

The Murtala/Obasanjo regime in Nigeria increased the number of states from _____

A. 4 to 12   B. 12 to 19   C. 19 to 21   D. 30 to 36.

A major factor that influenced the formation of Nigeria foreign policy in the First Republic was _____

A. geographical location
B. the colonial legacy
C. economic consideration
D. the parliamentary system

Nigeria’s departure from pro-West policy during the Murtala Muhammed regime was a result of ____

A. the economic interest of the West in Nigeria
B. Nigeria’s increased international influence
C. the growing trade between Nigeria and the East.
D. Nigeria’s concern for decolonization in Africa.

Power differs from influence in that it is ______

A. persuasive while influence is directive
B. coercive while influence is harmful
C coercive while influence is persuasive
D. coercive while influence of a legislature.

The standing committee of a legislature is one ______

A. whose members stand while deliberating
B. that has statutory responsibilities
C. that performs ad hoc function
D. that has all legislators as members.

Where the Constitution is supreme, unconstitutional acts of the executive and the legislature can be checked by the courts through _____

A. recall     B. judicial review     C. vote of no confidence    D. impeachment

The central decision-making organ of a confederation is made up of ______

A. technocrats appointed by the units
B. politicians elected from the confederal constituencies
C. politicians nominated by government of member states.
D. representatives of pressure groups

Which of the following is true of parliamentary system of government?

A. Clear separation of government organs
B. Strict operation of bicameral legislature
C. Removal of government by impeachment
D. Adherence to majority rule.

A major feature of authoritarianisms is that government is ______

A. consensual    B. personalized    C. centralized   D. decentralized

The central points of capitalism as expounded by Karl Marx is that ______

A. capitalists’ profit is the surplus value obtained from workers’ labour
B. workers are inherently incapable of being owners of their labour
C. capitalists shall always increase workers’ earning capacity through wages
D. capitalists shall always readily consent to workers’ welfare demands.

A constitution that requires a plebiscite or a referendum to be amended is _____

A. rigid   B. unwritten   C. flexible   D. written

An important function of a constitution is that it _____

A. provides a framework for the study of government
B. facilitates cross-fertilization of ideas of governance
C. serves as the fountain head of authority for the exercises of power
D. promotes citizen participation in government and administration.

When a bill passed by the legislature is vetoed by the executive, the action underscores the principle of

A. probity and accountability
B. separation of powers
C. collective responsibility
D. checks and balances

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