UTME CBT Practice Mock Tests – Faculty of Sciences – (Maths; Chem; Bio; Eng) – Set 1


Hello! Welcome to UTME CBT Practice Mock Tests - Faculty of Sciences - (Maths; Chem; Bio; Eng) - Set 1

  1. You are to attempt 180 Objectives Questions ONLY in the following UTME subjects
    Mathematics;
    Chemistry;
    Biology;
    Use of English
  2. Time allowed is 120 minutes (2 hours)
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UTME Mathematics - 40 Questions

A rectangular picture 6 cm by 8 cm is enclosed by a frame of ½ cm wide, calculate the area of the frame

A. 15 cm2       B. 20 cm2       C. 13 cm2       D. 16 cm2


The sum of  3\frac{7}{8}  and 1\frac{1}{3}  is less than the difference between  \frac{3}{8}  and  1\frac{2}{3}  by  _______

A. 3\frac{2}{3}      B. 6\frac{1}{2}      C. 5\frac{1}{4}      D. 1\frac{1}{2}


Multiply (x + 3y +5) by (2x2 + 5y + 2)

A. 2x3 + 3yx2 + 10xy + 15y2 + 13y + 10x2 + 2x + 10
B. 2x3 + 6y2 + 5xy + 15y2 + 31y + 10x2 + 2x + 10
C. 2x3 + 3yx2 + 5xy + 10y2 + 13y + 5x2 + 2x + 10
D. 2x3 + 6y2 + 5xy + 15y2 + 13y + 10x2 + 2x + 10



In the figure above, DE//BC, DB//FE, DE = 2 cm,   FC = 3 cm  and  AE = 4 cm.

Determine the length of EC.

A. 4 cm     B. 6 cm     C. 3 cm    D. 2 cm


In the figure below AB is parallel to CD

then x + y + z = ______

A. 195o      B. 200o      C. 360o      D. 180o


Arrange \frac{3}{5}\frac{9}{16}\frac{34}{59}  and  \frac{71}{97}  in ascending order of magnitude.

A. \frac{3}{5}\frac{9}{16}\frac{34}{59}\frac{71}{97}      B. \frac{9}{16}\frac{3}{5}\frac{71}{97}\frac{34}{59}      C. \frac{9}{16}\frac{34}{59}\frac{3}{5}\frac{71}{97}      D. \frac{34}{59}\frac{71}{97}\frac{3}{5}\frac{9}{16}


The sum of the progression 1 + x + x2 + x3 + ........ is _______

A. \frac{1}{1 - x}      B. \frac{1}{1 + x}      C. \frac{1}{x - 1}      D. \frac{1}{x}


The number of telephone calls N between two cities A and B varies directly as the population PA, PB in A and B respectively and inversely as the square of the distance D between A and B. Which of the following equations represents this relation?

A.

B.

C. N = KDPAPB

D. N = KDPA + CDPB


Find the square root of 170 - 20

A.       B.     C.       D.


If x2 - 4 = 0, then x = _______

A. 4    B. -4    C. 2    D. -2



In the figure above, FD//AC. The area AEF = 6 cm2, AE = 3 cm, BC = 3 cm, CD = 5 cm, ∠BCD is an obtuse angle. Find the length of BD.

A.       B. 6      C. 4      D.


What is the number whose logarithm to base 10 is 2.3482?

A. 223.6     B. 0.228     C. 0.02229    D. 22.37


Five years ago, a father was three times as old as the son, now, their combined age amount to 110 years. Thus, the present age of the father is _____

A. 75 years     B. 60 years     C. 98 years    D. 80 years


If y = 2x2 + 9x = 35, find the range of values for which y < 0

A. -7 < x < \frac{5}{2}      B. -7 ≤ x < 5      C. -5 ≤ x < 7      D. - \frac{7}{2} < x ≤ 5


Father reduces the quantity of food bought for the family by 10% when he found out that the cost of living has increased by 15%. Thus, the fractional increase in the food bill is now ____

A. \frac{1}{12}     B. \frac{6}{35}     C. \frac{19}{300}     D. \frac{7}{200}


Given that a*b = ab +a + b and that a o b = a + b + 1, find an expression (not involving * or o) for (a * b) o (a * c) if a, b, a, are real numbers and the operations on the right are ordinary addition and multiplication of numbers.

A. ac + ab + bc + b + c + 1
B. ac + ab + a + c + 2
C. ab + ac + a + b + 1
D. ab + ac + 2a + b + c + 1


If a circular paper disc is trimmed in such a way that its circumference is reduced in the ratio 2 : 5, in what ratio is the surface area reduced?

A. 8 : 125    B. 2 : 5     C. 8 : 25    D. 4 : 25


If the four interior angles of a quadrilateral are (P + 10)o, (P - 30)o, (2P - 45)o and (P + 15)o, then P is ____

A. 125o        B. 82o        C. 135o        D. 105o


Simplify 

A.      B.      C.      D.



In the figure above, O is the center of the circle. ∠CED = 30o, ∠EDA = 40o. What is the size of ∠ABC?

A. 70o     B. 110o     C. 130o    D. 125o


 A force of 5 units acts on a particle in the direction to the east and another force of 4 units acts on the particle in the direction north-east. The resultant of the two forces is ______

A.   units     B.      C. units     D. units


The minimum point on the curve y = x2 - 6x + 5  is  at  _______ 

A. (1,5)      B. (2, 3)       C. (3, -4)      D. (-3, 4)


If 3x - \frac{1}{4}  -  x, then the interval of values of x is ______

A. x >\frac{1}{3}     B. x < \frac{1}{3}     C. x < \frac{1}{4}     D. x > \frac{9}{16}


A canal has rectangular cross section of width 10cm and breadth 1m. If water of uniform density 1gm cm-3 flows through it at a constant speed of 1000 mm per minute, the adjacent sea is _______

A 100 000     B. 1000 000     C. 120 000     D. 30 000


A man runs a distance of 9km at a constant speed for the first 4km and then 2km/h faster for the rest of the distance. The whole run takes him one hour. His average speed for the first 4km is _____

A. 6km/h     B. 8km/h     C. 9km/h     D. 11km/h


A pyramid is constructed on a cuboid. The figure has ______

A. Twelve faces     B. Thirteen vertices     C. Fourteen edges     D. Sixteen edges.


In a geometric progression, the first term is 153 and the sixth term is  \frac{17}{27} . The sum of the first four term is _____

A. \frac{860}{3}      B. \frac{680}{3}      C. \frac{608}{3}      D. \frac{806}{3}


An arithmetic progression has first term 11 and fourth term 32. The sum of the first nine terms is _____

A. 351     B. 531     C. 135     D. 315     E. 153.


A triangle has angles 30o, 15o and 135o. The side opposite to the angle 30o has length 6 cm. The side opposite to the angle 135o is equal to _____

A. 12 cm    B. 6 cm    C. 6 cm     D. 12 cm


A regular hexagon is constructed inside a circle of diameter 12 cm. The area of hexagon is _____

A. 36π cm2      B. cm2      C. 54 cm2     D. cm2


In a soccer competition in one season, a club had scored the following goals:

2, 0, 3, 3, 2, 1, 4, 0, 0, 5, 1, 0, 2, 2, 1, 3, 1, 4, 1 and 1.

The mean, median and mode are respectively are _______

A. 1, 1.8 and 1.5     B. 1.8, 1.5 and 1     C. 1.8, 1 and 1.5     D. 1.5, 1 and 1.8


If sec2θ + tan2θ = 3, then the angle θ is equal to ______

A. 30o      B. 45o       C. 60o        D. 90o


A hollow right prism of equilateral triangular base of side 4cm is filled with water up to a certain height. If a sphere of radius  \frac{1}{2} cm is immersed in the water then the rise of water is _______

A. 1 cm      B. cm      C. cm      D. cm


The set of values of x and y which satisfy the equation x2 - y - 1 - 0 and y - 2x + 2 = 0 is ______

A. 1, 0    B. 1, 1     C. 2, 2    D. 0, 2


A solid sphere of radius 3cm, a solid right cone of radius 3cm and heí9ht 12cm and a solid right circular cylinder of radius 3cm and height 4cm. Which of the following statements is true?

A. The volume of the sphere is greater than the volume of the cone.
B. The volume of the cone is less than the volume of the cylinder
C. The total surface area of the cone is greater than that of the sphere
D. The total surface area of the cylinder is less than that of the sphere


The quantity  (x + y) is a factor of _____

A. x2 + y2      B. x3 - y3      C. 2x2 - 3xy + y2 - x + 1      D. 2x3 + 2x2y - xy + 3x - y2 + 3y


Two triangles have the same area if ______

A. Two sides in one triangle are equal to two sides in the other
B. Three sides in one triangle are equal to three sides in the other
C. Two angles in one triangle are equal to two angles in the other.
D. Three angles in one triangle are equal to three angles in the other.


If (25)x - 1 = 64, then the value of x is ______

A. 7    B. 4   C. 32   D. 64


The locus of all points having a distance of l units from each of the two fixed points a and b is ______

A. a line parallel to the line ab
B. a line perpendicular to the line ab through the mid-point of ab
C. a circle through a and b with centre at the mid point of ab
D. a circle with centre at a and passes through b


UTME Biology - 40 Questions

A relationship between living organisms which is of mutual benefit is _______

A. parasitism    B. saprophytism    C. ecosystem    D. symbiosis


Which of the following food chains is in the correct sequence?

A. Weeds → Tadpoles → Beetles → Fish → Man
B. Weeds  → Tadpoles → Fish → Beetles → Man
C. Tadpoles → Beetles → Weeds → Man → Fish
D. Man → Fish → Beetles → Tadpoles → Weeds


The primary and secondary hosts respectively of bilharzia are

A. fish and man    B. man and dog   C. snail and man    D. man and snail.


Which of the following is NOT caused by bacteria?

A. Cholera    B. Gonorrhoea    C. Tuberculosis    D. Typhoid


Tsetse fly is harmful to man because it is associated with the spread of _______

A. river blindness   B. malaria    C. sleeping sickness    D. leprosy.


Soil erosion CANNOT be controlled by ______

A. planting cover crops
B. contouring of sloping ground
C. terracing of slopes
D. burning of bush.


Water retention is highest in soils which are rich in ______

A. sand, poor in humus and devoid of clays
B. clay and sand, but poor in humus
C. clay and humus, but poor in sand
D. clay, poor in humus and devoid of sand


The origin of mineral particles in the soil is ______

A. humus    B. organic matter   C. micro-organisms   D. weathered rock


Atmospheric nitrogen is directly replenished in nature through _______

A. the activities of denitrifyirig bacteria
B. the breakdown of ammonium salts in the soil
C. the activities of nitrifying bacteria
D. egestion, death and decay.


The initial volume of water poured into a bag of dry soil was 50 ml and the amount that drained through was 35 ml. The percentage water content of the fully soaked soil is therefore ______

A. 46.7    B. 25.0     C. 20.0     D. 30.0


The function of the red head in male Agama lizards is to

A. attract female lizards for mating purposes
B. warn predators of the distastefulness of the animal
C. conceal and camouflage the animal from predators
D. scare other males from the territory.


In which of the following species is the biomass of an individual the smallest?

A. Bufo sp.    B. Spirogyra sp.   C. Tilapia sp.   D. Agama sp.


Seed plants are divided into

A. monocotyledons and dicotyledons
B. thallophytes and bryophytes
C. tracheophytes and ferns
D. angiosperms and gymnosperms.


In which of the following groups of vertebrates is parental care mostly exhibited?

A. Aves.    B. Mammalia    C. Reptilia.    D. Amphibia



Which of the organisms represented are notable agricultural pests?

A. II and III    B. I and III    C. II and IV   D. I and IV



An economic importance of the organism represented by IV is that

A. its faeces pollutes drinking water
B. it helps in the control of mosquito larvae
C. it transmits-water-borne diseases to humans
D. it is destructive to farm crops.



The adult form of III is a vector of

A. cholera    B. elephantiasis   C. sleeping sickness   D. river blindness.


The adaptive importance of nuptial flight from termite colonies is to

A. ensure cross-breeding between members of one colony and another
B. expel the reproductive so as to provide enough food for other members.
C. disperse the reproductive in order to establish new colonies
D. provide abundant food for birds and other animals during the early rains.



The gas evolved in the process is

A. oxygen   B. carbon (II) oxide   C. carbon (IV) oxide   D. nitrogen.



The experimental set up above is used to demonstrate the process of

A. fermentation   B. plasmolysis   C. diffusion   D. photosynthesis.


Which of the following can cause shrinkage of living cells?

A. Deionized water.   B. Hypertonic solution.   C. Hypotonic solution.   D. lsotonic solution.


Which of the following is true of leucocytes?

A. They are large and nucleated.
B. They are involved in blood clotting
C. They are respiratory pigments.
D. They are most numerous and ramify all cells.


The conversion of a nutrient into a molecule in the body of a consumer is referred to as

A. absorption   B. inhibition   C. digestion   D. assimilation.


The ability of a living organism to detect and respond to changes in the environment is referred to as

A. growth   B. taxis   C. locomotion   D. irritability


In mammals, the exchange of nutrients and metabolic products occurs in the

A. trachea   B. lymph   C. lungs   D. oesophagus.


An example of an endospermous seed is

A. cotton seed   B. bean seed   C. maize grain   D. cashew nut.


I. Parasitism → Sundew.
II. Autotrophism → Amoeba.
III.Saprophytism → Alga.
IV. Heterotrophism → Agama.

Which of the above modes of nutrition is correctly matched with the organism that exhibits it?

A. IV   B. I   C. II   D. III


I. Test tube containing cane sugar and water
II. Test tube containing cane sugar and dilute acid
III. Test tube containing cane sugar and its degrading enzyme

In which of the test tubes will glucose be detected after complete hydrolysis?

A. I only.   B. I, II and III.   C. I and II only.   D. II and III only.


I. Test tube containing cane sugar and water
II. Test tube containing cane sugar and dilute acid
III. Test tube containing cane sugar and its degrading enzyme

The enzyme involved in the hydrolysis is _______

A. sucrose   B. maltase.   C. rennin   D. erepsin.


The part of the mammalian ear responsible for the maintenance of balance is the ______

A. perilymph   B. ossicles   C. cochlea   D. pinna.


The path followed by air as it passes through the lungs in mammals is _____

A. trachea → bronchioles → bronchi → alveoli
B. bronchioles → alveoli → bronchi → trachea
C. trachea → bronchi → bronchioles → alveoli
D. bronchi → trachea → alveoli → bronchioles.


The movement response of a cockroach away from a light source can be described as ____

A. negative phototropism
B. positive phototropism
C. positive phototaxism
D. negative phototaxism.


The vascular tissues in higher plants are responsible for

A. transpiration pull
B. the transport of gases and water
C. the movement of food and water
D. suction pressure.


Which of the following organs regulates the levels of water, salts, hydrogen ions and urea in the mammalian blood?

A. Bladder.   B. Colon.   C. Liver.   D. Kidney.


The sequence of the one-way gaseous exchange mechanism in a fish is

A. mouth → operculum → gills
B. mouth → gills → operculum
C. operculum → gills → mouth
D. gills → operculum → mouth.


The type of asexual reproduction that is common to both Paramecium and protists is

A. fragmentation   B. fission   C. budding   D. sporulation.


In nature, plants and animals are perpetually engaged in mutualism because

A. they utilize respiratory wastes of each other
B. they are neighbours
C. they are rivals
D. all animals rely on food produced by plants.


In an experiment to determine the percentage of humus and water in a soil sample, the following results were obtained;

Weight of the evaporating basin alone = 80.5g
Weight of basin and soil = 101.5g
Weight after drying the soil in the oven = 99.0g
Weight of basin and roasted soil = 95.5g

The percentage of humus in the soil sample is _____

A. 26.7%    B. 16.2%    C. 16.7%    D. 17.6%.


An example of a filter feeding animal is _____

A. whale    B. mosquito    C. shark    D. butterfly.


Which of the following is a feature of the population pyramid of a developing country?

A. Low death rate.   B. Short lifespan.   C. Long lifespan.   D. Low birth rate.


UTME Use of English - 60 Questions

Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

PASSAGE I
Curiosity is as clear and definite as any of our urges. We wonder what is in a sealed telegram or in a letter which someone else is absorbed or what is being said in the telephone booth or in low conversation. This inquisitiveness is vastly stimulated by jealousy suspicion, or any hint that we ourselves are directly or indirectly involved in. But there appears to be a fair amount of personal interest in other people’s affairs even when they do not concern us except as a mystery to be unravelled or a tale to be told. The reports of a divorce suit will have ‘news value’ for many weeks. They constitute a story like a novel, a play or a moving picture. This is not an example of pure curiosity. However, since readily, identify ourselves with others’ their joys and despair then become our own concern.

Adapted from Harris, W. and L.G Wilson (1963) The University Handbook New York Holt Rineht and Winston

1. Which of the following statements is true according to the passage?

A. Suspicion often stimulates inquisitiveness.
B. Every human conduct often gives rise to curiosity.
C. Our environment always inhibits curiosity.
D. Curiosity is effective where there is no room for it.


2. According to the passage, people wonder what is in a sealed telegram because.

A. it has taken long for the telegram to arrive.
B they are naturally curious about things.
C. the information is vital to them.
D. it is their responsibility to know.


3. The word absorbed, as used in the passage, means

A. disturbed   B. engrossed    C. covered    D. entailed


4. From the passage it can be deduced that curiosity thrives

A. through conducts that are inimical to our activities
B. if we are able to probe into what others are thinking
C. only if we become suspicious of people’s Motives
D. if the subject of discussion is of interest to us


5. The author seems to suggest that curiosity is

A. misleading    B. inborn    C. lamed    D. acquired


7. One argument given in support of personal writing is that it _______

A. makes writers more focused and less boring.
B. can be more objective than impersonal writing.
C. is the style to use in all situations involving businessmen.
D. has informal features which make it more diverting than impersonal writing.


From the passage, what determines the appropriateness of a style is the _____

A. situation     B. reader     C. writer     D. theme


9. According to the passage, most of the writing in the newspapers, news magazines and journals

A. impersonal and interesting.
B. impersonal and uninteresting.
C. personal and interesting.
D. personal and uninteresting


10. Which of the following best describes the writer of the passage?

A. He cannot be said to be objective.
B. He is completely non-committal.
C. He recognizes the need to be critical of report writing.
D. He is being unnecessarily analytic.




The passage below has gaps, immediately following each gap, four options are provided. Choose the most appropriate option for each gap.

PASSAGE II
Boxing is sometimes called ‘the noble art of self defence’. According to some people, boxing appeals to the lowest instincts in the ....6... [A. agitators B. witnesses C. congregations D. spectators]


who have conic to watch blood flow and their fellow human suffer. Boxers who are medically fit appear in the ....7... [A. stage B. circle C. track D. ring]


The referee sometimes allows the ….8... [A. bout B. match C. performance D. contest]


to go on for long so that one of the ... 9... [A. assailants B. disputant C. contestant D. brawlers] is reduced to a human punch bag.


It may happen that the boxers are not well ... 10... [A. levelled   B. groomed    C. sparred    D. staged], one being much stronger than the other, as a result of which he so much outclasses his opponent that he wins by knock-out.


his opponent that he wins ... 17... [A. by knock-out B. by a knock-down C. by a punch up D. by a punch down]


Many boxers having suffered permanent brain ...18... [A drain B. fatigue C damage P. sprain]


in the ……19... [A. barrage B. clutter C. rattle P. racket] of punches


that have been thrown at them during their ...20... [A. career B. calling C. vacation D. routine]

Adapted from Ogunsanwo. O. Duruaku, A. B. C., Ezechukwu J and Nwachukwu U.I (2003) Countdown to WASSCE/SSCE, NECO, JME English Language: Evans Brothers Ltd.



For these questions, select the option that best explains the information conveyed in the question.

11. Mr. Rufus bore the brunt in the last promotion examination.

A
. Mr Rufus failed the examination woefully.
B. Mr. Rufus excelled in the examination.
C. Mr. Rufus was excited about the examination.
D. Mr. Rufus toyed with the examination.


12. My friend is well on nowadays

A
. My friend is financially sound.
B My friend is well known to people.
C. My friend is now well.
D. My friend has lost focus.


13. The retired army officer did a yeoman’s service to the nation.

A. His activity brought disrepute to the nation
B. His service to the nation was not exemplary.
C. He was showered with the responsibility of the yeoman.
D. He was very loyal to the nation.


14. He suddenly found himself in the thick of the situation.

A. He did not agree with the situation.
B. He used his experience Lo settle the situation.
C. He saved himself that of the situation.
D. He found himself deeply involved in the situation.


15. Olu and Ado are about to come to blows.

A. They are about to agree with each other.
B. They are about to accept other people’s opinion.
C They are about to hit each other
D. They are about to disagree with other people’s opinion.


16. By refusing the offer, he has just cut down his own throat

A
. He has made a big mistake.
B. He has made the right decision.
C. He has given up on his idea.
D. He has used the knife on his throat.


17. These job cuts are just the thin end of the wedge.

A. Job cuts are very rampant.
B. Job cuts are inconclusive.
C. Job cuts are the beginning of unpleasant situations.
D. Job cuts are the beginning of healthy rivalries.


18. Jumai will do well if he was given a fair crack of the whip.

A. She would do well if she was given a fair whip.
B. She would excel if she used the whip well.
C. She would do well if she was given equal opportunity.
D. She would do well if she was made to cry.


19. Her death was a bolt from the blue to us.

A. Her death bolted us together.
B. Her death caused confusion.
C Her death sealed our hopes.
D. Her death was unexpected.


20. The students were nosing around.

A. They were roaming about.
B. They were searching for information.
C. They were playing around.
D. They were disseminating information.




For these questions, choose the option opposite in meaning to the word or phrase in italics

21. It is important not to let mistakes blight your life

A. damage    B. impart    C. improve    D. ruin


22. The film was shot in decrepit police station.

A
. an improved    B. a damaged    C. an impoverished    D. a dilapidated.


23. Jumoke is fond of carping her sister.

A
. praising    B. joking With    C. complaining about    D. faulting.


24. A cup of coffee invigorated him.

A. destroyed    B. energized    C. angered    D. debilitated.


25. It is ludicrous to suggest that she was a government agent.

A
. odd    B. exciting    C. farcical    D. sensible.


26. The idea makes me cringe.

A. quiver    B. tremble    C. resolute    D. writhe.


27. His book was one of those books that galvanised democracy.

A. stimulated    B. encouraged    C. dissuaded    D. promoted


28. He walks in a gawky way.

A. suitable    B. clumsy    C. lumbering    D. graceful


29. The nation is in a period of economic flux

A
. modification    B. change    C. fluidity    D. stability


30. Our son was highly active and exuberant.

A
. subdued     B. fulsome    C. lively    D. bright




For these questions choose the options that best complete the gap(s).

31. The book will sell in ……………

A. hundreds of thousands    B. a hundred thousand    C. hundreds of thousand    D. hundred thousands.


32. We must he ready to cater for

A. the poors and needy    B. poor and needs   C. the poor and needy   D. poors and needs.


33. After a three-day meeting, two presidents issued a ....... calling for peace.

A. bulletin    B. memorandum    C. communiqué    D. directive.


34. Timi has gone to Lagos and he will be back in _____ time.

A. two’s week    B. two week’s   C. two weeks   D. two weeks’.


35. The students have not come back from the school farm, ………….?

A. hadn’t they    B. have they    C. didn’t they    D. isn’t it


36. ‘Do not forget to reply…………. ‘ said the teacher.

A
. my letter    B. for my letter    C. of my letter    D. to my letter


37. You will need…………... to help the investigations.

A
. this information    B. this informations    C. these information    D. these informations.




For these questions, choose the option nearest in meaning the word or phrase in italics

38. Mr. Ojo has a fickle character.

A
. a genuine    B. a stable    C. an imperfect    D. an unpredictable


39. He picked up the phone expecting to hear the chairman’s gruff voice.

A. gracious    B. musical    C. husky    D. polite.


40. It has been a fraught day.

A
. difficult    B. pleasant    C. wonderful    D. solemn.


41. She scowled furiously at his back as he walked away.

A. whispered    B. grimaced    C. screeched    D. screamed.


42. The use of this equipment should obviate the problem

A
. prevent    B. improve    C. promote    D. worsen.




For these questions, choose the options that have the same vowel sound as the ones represented by the letter(s) underlined.

43. reprieve

A. rich    B. police    C. queer    D. probity


44. door

A. food    B. cough    C. sure    D. board


45. famous

A. soup    B. cook    C. pilot   D. colonel




For these questions, choose the most appropriate stress pattern from the options. The stressed syllables are written in capital letter(s).

46. inoffensive

A. inOffensive    B. inoffenSIVE    C. inoffensive    D. Inoffensive


47. obligation

A. obliGAtion    B. OBligation    C. obligaTiON    D. obligation


48. disagreement

A. disAgreement    B. disaGREEment    C. DiSagreement    D. disagreement




In each of questions below, the words in capital letters have the emphatic stress. Choose the option to which the given sentence relates.

49. The car CRUSHED him.

A. Who did the car crush?
B. Did a car crush him?
C. What crushed him?
D. Did the car injure him?


50. Lamide is VERY hostile?

A. Is Lamide so hostile?
B. Is Lamide friendly?
C. Was Lamide very hostile?
D. Who is hostile?



UTME Chemistry - 40 Questions



The reaction above is best described as ________

A. esterification    B. condensation    C. saponification    D. neutralization.


Which of the following methods can be used to obtain pure water from a mixture of sand, water and methanoic acid?

A. Neutralisation with NaCH followed by filtration.
B. Neutralisation with NaOH followed by distillation.
C. Fractional distillation.
D. Filtration followed by distillation.


How many atoms are present in 6.0 g of magnesium? [Mg = 24, NA = 6.02 x 102 mo1-1]

A. 1.20 x 1022    B. 2.41 x 1022    C. 1.51 x 1023    D. 3.02 x 1023

50 cm3 of a gas was collected over water at 10oC and 765 mm Hg. Calculate the volume of the gas at s.t.p. if the saturated vapour pressure of water at10oC is 5mm Hg.

A. 49.19 cm3    B. 48.87 cm3    C. 48.55 cm3   D. 48.23 cm3


An increase in the pressure exerted on a gas at a constant temperature results in ______

A. a decrease in the number of effective collisions
B. a decrease in volume
C. an increase in the average intermolecular distance
D. an increase in volume.


2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(g)

In the reaction above, what volume of hydrogen would be left over when 300 cm3 of oxygen and 1000 cm3 of hydrogen are exploded in a sealed tube?

A. 200 cm3.    B. 400 cm3.    C. 600 cm3.    D. 700 cm3.


I. Evaporation.
II. Sublimation,
III. Diffusion.
IV. Brownian motion.

Which of the above can correctly be listed as evidences for the particulate nature of matter? .
A. I and III only    B. II and IV only   C. I, Il and III only D. I, II, III and IV


If the elements X and Y have atomic numbers 11 and 17 respectively, what type of bond can they form?

A. Dative.   B. Covalent.    C. Ionic.   D. Metallic.


A hydrogen atom which has lost an electron contains

A. one proton only
B. one neutron only
C. one proton and one neutron
D. one proton, one electron and one neutron.


The electronic configuration of Mg2+ is ______

A. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p2   
B. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2   
C. 1s2 2s2 2p6   
D. 1s2 2s2 2p4


Group VII elements are

A. monoatomic     B. good oxidizing agents    C. highly electropositive     D. electron donors.


Which of the following is used to study the arrangement of particles in crystal Lattices?

A. Alpha-particles.   B. Beta-particles.   C. Gamma-rays.   D. X-rays


I. It has a varied composition from one place to another.
II. Its constituents can be separated by physical means
III. it contains unreactive noble gases.

Which of the above shows that air is a mixture?

A. I and II only    B. II and III only   C. I and III only    D. I, ll and III


The chemicals used to soften hard water involves the addition of ______

A. insoluble sodium compounds which form soluble solutions of calcium and magnesium ions
B soluble sodium compounds which form soluble solutions of calcium and magnesium ions
C. soluble sodium compounds which form insoluble precipitates of calcium and magnesium ions
D. insoluble sodium compounds which form insoluble precipitates of calcium and magnesium ions.


Chlorination of water for town supply is carried out to ______

A. make the water colourless
B remove germs from the water
C. make the water tasteful
D. remove odour from the water.


The solubilities of different solutes in a given solvent can be compared by ______

A. plotting their solubility curves on separate axes
B. plotting their solubility curves on the same axes
C. plotting some of the solubility curves on the x-axis and others on the y-axis
D. plotting their solubility curves on the x-axis only.


Potassium trioxochlorate(V) has a solubility of 1.5 mol dm-3 at 45oC. On cooling this solution to a temperature of 20oC, the solubility was found to be 0.5 mol dm-3. What mass of KCIO3 was
crystalized out? [K = 39, Cl = 35.5, O = 16]

A. 1.00g.     B. 1000g.    C. 12.25 g.     D. 122.50 g.


Which of the following pollutants is associated with brain damage?

A. Carbon (lI) oxide.    B. Radioactive fallout.    C. Biodegradable waste.    D. Sulphur (IV) oxide.


Which of the following will produce a solution with pH less than 7 at equivalent point?

A. HNO3 + NaOH.    B. H2SO4 + KOH.    C. HCI + Mg(OH)2.    D. HNO + KOH.


The number of hydroxonium ions produced by one molecule of an acid in aqueous solution is its

A. basicity    B. acid strength    C. pH    D. concentration.


During a titration experiment, 0.05 moIes of carbon(IV) oxide is liberated. What is the volume of gas liberated? [Molar volume of a gas at s.t.p. = 22.4 dm3]

A. 22.40 dm3.    B. 11.20 dm3.   C. 2.24 dm3.    D. 1.12 dm3.


A major factor considered in selecting a suitable method for preparing a simple salt is its _____

A. crystalline form    B. melting point    C. reactivity with dilute acids    D. solubility in water.


The oxidation number of boron in NaBH4 is ______

A. -3    B. -1    C. +1    D. +3


2Na2O2(s) + 2H2O(l) → 4NaOH(s) + O2(g)

The substance that is oxidized in the reaction above is ______

A. 2Na2O2(s)    B. NaOH(aq)     C. H2O(l)    D. O2(g)


What number of moles of Cu2+ will be deposited by 360 coulombs of electricity? [F = 96500 C mol-1]

A. 5.36 x 10-4 mole.    B. 1.87 x 10-3 mole.    C. 9.35 x 10-4 mole.    D. 3.73 x 10-3mole.


A metal M displaces zinc from ZnCI2 solution. This shows that _______

A. electrons flow from zinc to M
B. M is more &ectropositive than zinc
C. M is more electonegative than zinc
D. zinc is more electropositive than M.


CO(g) + H2O(g)  → CO2(g) + H2(g)

Calculate the standard heat change of the reaction above, if the standard enthalpies of formation of CO2(g) , H2O(g) and CO(g) in kJ mol-1  are -394, -242 and -110 respectively.

A. +262 kJ mol-1    B. -262 kJ moI-1    C. +42 kJ mol-1    D. -42 kJ mol-1


An increase in entropy can best be illustrated by _______

A. mixing of gases     B. freezing of water    C. the condensation of vapour    D. solidifying candle wax


The highest rate of production of carbon(IV) oxide can be achieved using _______

A. 0.05 moI dm-3 HCI and 5g powdered CaCO3
B. 0.05 mol dm-3 HCl and 5g lump CaCO3
C. 0.10 moI dm-3 HCl and 5g powdered CaCO3 .
D. 0.025 mol dm-3 HCI and 5g powdered CaCO3.



In the reaction above, high pressure will favour the forward reaction because _______

A. high pressure favours gas formation
B. the reaction s in dynamic equilibrium
C. the reaction is exothermic
D. the process occurs with a decrease in volume.


A piece of filter paper moistened with lead (Il) ethanoate solution turns black when the paper is dropped into a gas jar containing an unknown gas. The gas is likely to be _______

A. sulphur (IV) oxide    B. hydrogen chloride    C. sulphur(V) oxide    D. hydrogen sulphide.


Which of the following gases has a characteristic pungent smell, turns red litmus paper blue and forms dense white fumes with hydrogen chloride gas?

A. N2   B.N2O    C. Cl2    D. NH3



The compound above exhibits

A. geometric isomerism    B. optical isomerism    C. structural isomerism    D. positional isomerism.


An organic compound has an empirical formula CH2O and vapour density of 45. What is its molecular formula? [C=12, H=1, 0=16]

A. C3H7OH    B. C2H5OH    C. C3H5O3    D. C2H4O2



The reaction represented by the equation above is useful in the production of _______

A. propanol    B. butanol    C. methanol    D. ethanol


The number of isomers that can be obtained from C4H10 is _________
A. 3   B. 4 .  C. 1    D. 2.



The functional groups present in the compound above are

A. alkene and halo-group
B. hydroxyl and chloro-group
C. alkene and chloro-group
D. hydroxyl and halo-group.


Which of the following is a primary amine?


Two organic compounds K and L were treated with a few drops of Fehling’s solution respectively. K formed a brick-red precipitate while L remains unaffected, The compound K is an ______

A. alkanol    B. alkane    C. aIkana    D. alkanone.


Which of the following statements is true about 2-methylpropane and butane?

A. They are members of the same homologous series.
B. They have the same boiling points.
C. They have different number of carbon atoms.
D. They have the same chemical properties.

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