UTME CBT Practice Mock Tests – Faculty of Agriculture/Vet Medicine – (Maths; Chem; Bio; Eng) – Set 1

Hello! Welcome to UTME CBT Practice Mock Tests - Faculty of Agriculture/Vet Medicine - (Maths; Chem; Bio; Eng) - Set 1

  1. You are to attempt 180 Objectives Questions ONLY in the following UTME subjects
    Use of English
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UTME Use of English - 60 questions


Read the passage carefully and answer the question that follows.

There are many different approaches to conflict management, each of which may have utility in particular circumstances. A great deal of scholarship has been devoted to analysing how and in what situations different approaches can be applied most effectively.

Conflict management approaches can be classified into two broad categories: firstly on the basis of the level of escalation which the particular conflict is being managed. In this sense one can distinguish between the peaceful and the military approaches. The trademarks of the peaceful approach are negotiation, verbal persuasion, use of inducements, denial of privileges and subtle manipulations, short of the use of physical forces.

While those of the military approach relates to the use of physical coercion. The use of physical force could be by a party to the conflict or a third party to promote one side’s interests, impose a settlement or create a situation in which diplomatic negotiations can occur.

Secondly, conflict management approaches can also be classified according to the status of the participants in the bargaining process. For example, a conflict could be managed through negotiation that is, direct bargaining by the parties involved in the conflict or through mediation, that is with the help of a third party.

Adaped from Imobiche. T.A. (2003) The (OAUTAU) and OAS Regional Conflict Management A comparative Assesment, lbadan: Spectrum Books Ltd.

1. The expression third party as used in the passage means:

A. Politician   B. Intruder   C. conformist   D. Mediator.

2. From the passage, it can be deduced that _____

A. All nations adopt the peaceful approach
B. All nations prefer the military option
C. Prevailing circumstances push a warring nation to sue for peace.
D. Conflicts are noted for facilitating opportunities.

3. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage?

A. The approach to employ in conflict management depends on the state of affairs.
B. Only one conflict management approach can be applied in all situations
C. All conflict management approaches can be applied in all situations.
D. There is a general disagreement among scholars on conflict management

4. According to the passage, the different approaches to conflict management are:

A. pernicious    B. uniform    C. misleading    D. Fundamental.

5. The word utility; as used in the passage means:

A. difficulty    B. Attitude    C. usefulness    D. Management.

6. The word couched, as used in the passage, means ______

A. Arrange   B. Expressed   C. modified   D. Itemized.

The passage below has gaps. Immediately following each gap, four options are provided. Choose the most appropriate option for each gap.

Before now, students bumped onto career by chance or through the advice and insistence of parents. These parents had pre-conceived notions of ----7------[ A. prestigious, B. insignificant, C. inferior, D. debased]

profession and gave little consideration to their children’s ------8-----[A. interest, B. aptitude, C. knowledge, D. skills.]

Student’s career decisions were also ---------9--------[A. hampered. B. influenced, C. subdued D. rejected] by the type of secondary schools they attended.

Before government take-over of schools in 1971, over 80% of elementary and secondary schools were privately owned and competition was -----10-----[A. minimal. B. high, C. low D. moderate] among these schools.

Each strived to calve an -----11-----[A. image, B. attitude, C. effort, D. avenue for]

herself by excelling in sports or academics and students often ended up in -----12----[A. engineering, B. medicine, C. the sciences D. law. ]

Junior student tried to --------13------[A. emulate, B. appreciate, C. reject D. denounce] the career choices of their seniors.

This spirit of rivalry among mission and private schools ----14----[A. waned, B. heightened, C. intensified, D. increased] with government take-over of schools.

Government’s involvement in career development is beset with many problems. One of such problem is the ------15-----[A. acute, B. mild, C. slow, D. average] shortage of professional career development officers.

These few officers are -----16----[A. usually, B. seldom, C. often, D. frequently] given the opportunity to practice.

In these questions, select the option that best explains the information conveyed in the sentence.

13. The workers tightened their hold on the capital

A. They tightened a rope round their capital
B. They controlled their capital more strictly
C. They held onto other workers in the capital
D. They stretched their hold on the capital and beyond

14. Amedu’s action provoked severe criticism

A. His actions were seriously rejected
B. His actions were severe and accepted.
C. His actions were itemized because he was young.
D. His actions provoked the humour.

15. I haven’t seen the movie and my brother haven’t either.

A. I have seen the movie but neither of my brothers has.
B. My brother and I haven’t seen the movie
C. Only my brother has seen the movie
D. I was the only one that has seen the movie.

16. Sule would have been given the car if his father had not complained.

A. He wasn’t given the car because his father complained
B. He was given the car because his father complained
C. His father complained about the car and he was given.
D. He was given the car even though his father didn’t complain.

17. Adayi cannot halt the march of time.

A. She is willing to march on
B. She cannot change the way thing has happen.
C. She halts the march on time.
D. She cannot alter the peace march.

23. The lecture is Uye’s road to Damascus.

A. The lecture is an opportunity to travel to Damascus.
B. The lecture is an experience that changes the way she thinks
C. The lecture talks exclusively about Damascus.
D. The lecture is an experience that cannot be changed.

24. Ado is one of the backwoodsmen.

A. He is one of those that live in a distant and underdeveloped area
B. He is one of the active member of the community
C. He is one of the honest men that lives in the community
D. He is one of those that live in the most developed part of the city.

25. Bello said he would pitch his tent with the club.

A. He would support the club.
B. He would build a pitch in the club
C. He would build a tent on the pitch.
D. He would distance himself from the club.

27. Kasim would have attended the party if he had been invited.

A. He would not have attended even if he was invited
B. He attended the party before he was invited.
C. He was not invited and so, he did not attend
D. He attended the party without invitation.


For these questions, choose the option opposite in meaning to the word or phrase in italics

18. Adewale’s arrival always triggers a media frenzy

A. Violence   B. Agitation   C. Calm   D. Excitement.

19. She said, the experience was harrowing.

A. Educating   B. Frightening   C. Pleasant   D. Strange

20. The house was invaded by the young officers

A. Set up   B. Put down   C. Defended   D. built

21. I like Adamu weird attitude.

A. Buoyant   B. Peculiar   C. Zestful   D. normal.

22. We travelled to an obscure little town.

A. rugged   B. Distinguished   C. Secluded   D. inglorious.

23. She is known for her bizarre dressing.

A. Natural   B. Weird   C. Obsolete   D. Odious.

24. Lami normally scurries around town

A. Scampers   B. Dashes   C. Dawdles   D. Scuffles

25. Sule’s poem is always explicit and compelling

A. Exciting   B. Clear   C. Ambiguous   D. Long.

26. Usman smiled in a scornful way

A. Respectful   B. Derisive   C. Sarcastic   D. Deluded

27. Alade is noted for his erratic behaviour.

A. Fitful   B. Bizarre   C. Consistent   D. Euphoric

28. The Priest knows Ochai as an abstainer

A. Someone who never drinks alcohol
B. Someone who holds onto his ideas
C. Someone who reads a lot
D. Someone who never cares about others.

For this questions, choose the option nearest in meaning to the word or phrase in italics.

29. She gave a caustic remark on the occasion

A. tangible   B. Friendly   C. Insignificant   D. Sarcastic.

30. It was a good try but it didn’t quite walk out.

A. Come to   B. come off   C. come from   D. come for

31. Garuba’s performances in the competition was horrid.

A. terrible   B. encouraging   C. Commendable   D. rigid.

32. Just give me the basic facts with needless details

A. relevant   B. extraneous   C. essential   D. critical

33. Usarna likes toys made with bright and animated colours.

A. dull   B. sparkling   C. black   D. deep

34. The man has strong distaste for alcohol.

A. love   B. aversion   C. desire   D. excitement.

35. The schism in the organisation is on the increase.

A. disagreement   B. understanding   C. opportunity   D. rot

36. Sule admires people who have unbending character

A. mobile   B. steady   C. wavering   D. unstable

37. He detests honesty

A. likes   B. hates   C. encourages   D. commands.

From questions below; choose the option that best completes the gap(s)

38. The number of stores will be increased ... twenty to thirty.

A. from   B. on   C. at   D. into

39. ……..bomb had earlier been defused

A. A leaf   B. An alive   C. A life   D. A live

40. The mechanic did not tell me the brakes …..... bad

A. were   B. are   C. is   D. was.

41. Tayo could have supplied the goods but it was ….. into two

A. splitting   B. split   C. splited   D. splits.

42. Had Aisha realized what marriage entails she ………..

A. could have not rush into it
B. would have rushes into it
C. would not have rushes into it
D. would not have rushed into it.

43. The company deals ... computer software

A. with   B. for   C. in    D. to.

44. There is no logic ______ any of their claims.

A. with   B. in   C. from   D. up

45. ………. the house was an easy task for the demolition squad.

A. Bringing forth   B. Tearing down   C. Bringing up   D. Tearing with.

For this question, choose the option that has the same vowel sound as the one represented by the letter(s) underlined.

46. Bore

A. call   B. curl   C. slot   D. hum

47. Head

A. said   B. heard   C. herd   D. shirt.

48. Sky.

A. cite   B. eats   C. breaks   D. coil.

For questions below, choose the appropriate stress pattern from the options. the stress syllables are written in capital letter(s)

49. Programmatic

A. proGRAMmatic    B. PROgrammatic    C. programMATIC   D. programmatiC

50. Certification

A. certiFIcation   B. CERtification   C. certificAtion   D. cerTIfication.

UTME Chemistry - 40 Questions

Commercial bleaching can be carried out using ______

A. sulphur(IV) oxide and ammonia
B. hydrogen suiphide and chiorine
C. chlorine and sulphur(IV) oxide
D. ammonia and chlorine.

Mineral acids are usually added to commercial hydrogen peroxide to _______

A. oxidize it
B. decompose it .
C. minimise its decomposition
D. reduce It to water and oxygen.

Which of the following compounds will burn with a brick-red colour in a non-luminous Bunsen flame?

A. LiCI    B. NaCl    C. CaCI2   D. MgCl2

The purest form of iron which contains only about 0,1% carbon is _____

A. pig iron     B. wrought iron    C. cast iron    D. iron pyrite.

A common characteristic between zinc and the other transition elements is the abilìty to _____

A. have variable oxidation states
B. form complex ions
C. act as a catalyst
D. form coloured ions.

Which of the following metals is the least reactive?

A. Pb    B. Sn     C. Hg    D. Au

Geometric isomerism can exist in ______

A. hex-3-ene    B. hexane    C. prop-I-ene    D. 3-methyl but-I-one.

Alkanals can be distinguished from alkanones by the reaction with ______

A. sudan Ill stain   
B. starch iodide paper   
C. lithium tetrahydrido aluminate(IIl)   
D. Fehling’s solution.

The isomers of C3H8O are _______

A. 1 - propanol and 2- propanol
B. 1 - propanol and 1 - propanal
C. 2 - propanol and 2- propanone
D. 2- propanol and 1 - propanal.

Carbohydrates are large molecules with the molecular formula Cx(H2O)y . In which of the following pairs is x not equal to y?

A. Glucose and starch.   B. Maltose and fructose.   C. Sucrose and fructose.   D. Maltose and starch.

A compound contains 40.0% C, 6.7% H and 53.3% O. If the molecular mass of the
compound is 180, its molecular formula is _______ [C = 12, H = 1, O = 16]

A. CH2O    B. C3H6O3    C. C6H6O3    D. C6H12O6.

The alkyne that will give a white precipitate silver trioxonitrate (V) is ______

A. CH3 CH2 C = C CH2 CH3
B. CH3 C = C CH2 CH2 CH3
C. CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 C = CH
D. CH3 CH2 CH2 C = C CH2 CH3.

The saponification of an alkanoate to produce soap and alkanol involves

A. dehydration    B. esterification    C. hydrolysis   D. oxidation.

2-methyl propan -2- ol is an example of a ______

A. primary alkano    B. secondary alkanol    C. tertiary alkanol    D. quaternary alkanol.

The final oxidation product of alkanol, alkanal and alkanones is _______

A. alkanoic acid     B. alkanoyl halide     C. alkanoate      D. alkanamide

Ethanol reacts with concentrated tetraoxosulphate(VI) acid at a temperature above 170oC to form

A. ethanone    B. ethene    C. ethyne    D. ethanal.

An example of oxidation - reduction enzyme is ________

A. amylase    B. protease    C. lipase    D. dehydrogenase.

A mixture is different from a compound because

A. the properties of a compound are those of its individual constituents while those of a mixture differ from its constituents.
B. a mixture is always homogeneous while a compound is not.
C. the constituents of a compound are chemically bound together while those of a mixture are not.
D. a mixture can be represented by a chemical formula while a compound cannot.

What is the percentage of sulphur in sulphur(IV)oxide? [S = 32, O = 16]

A. 66%    B. 25%    C. 40%    D. 50%

A gas X diffuses twice as fast as gas Y. if the relative molecular mass of X is 32, calculate  the relative molecular mass of Y.

A. 128.    B. 8.    C. 16.    D. 64.

200 cm3 of a gas at 25°C exerts a pressure of 700 mmHg. Calculate its pressure if its volume increases 350 cm3 at 75°C.

A. 342.53 mmHg.    B. 1430.54 mmHg.    C. 467.11 mmHg.    D. 400.00 mmHg.

An element X has electron configuration 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5. Which of the following statements is correct about the element?

A. It has a completely filled p-orbital.
B. It has 5 electrons in its outermost shell
C. It belongs to group II on the periodic table.
D. It is a halogen.

Beryllium and aluminium have similar properties because they _______

A. are both metals.
B. belong to the same group.
C. belong to the same period.
D. are positioned diagonally to each other.

If the difference in electronegativity of elements P and Q is 3.0. The bond that will be formed between them is _______

A. metallic.     B. covalent.    C. co-ordinate.    D. ionic.

How many protons, neutron- and electrons respectively are present in the element

A. 27, 33 and 33.    B. 33, 27 and 27.    C. 27, 33 and 27.    D. 60, 33 and 60.

The radioactive radiation used in studying the arrangement of particles in giant organic molecules is ______

A. γ -rays.    B. α-particles.   C. X-rays.   D. β-particles.

A silicon - containing ore has 92% 28Si,  5% 29Si  and  3% 30Si. Calculate the relative atomic mass of the silicon.

A. 14.00.    B. 29.00.    C. 28.11.    D. 28.00.

The nitrogen obtained from air has a density higher than the one from nitrogen-containing compounds because the one from air is contaminated with ________

A. water vapour.   B. Oxygen   C. rare gases.    D. carbon(IV)oxide.

Water is said to be temporarily hard when it contains ________

A. Ca(HCO3)2 and Mg(HCO3)3 salts.
B. Ca(HCO3)2 and CaCO3 salts.
C. Mg(HCO3)2 and CaSO4 salts.
D. CaSO4 and Ca(HCO3)2 salts

On exposure to the atmosphere, a hydrated salt loses its water of crystallization to become anhydrous. This phenomenon is referred to as ________

A. efflorescence.    B. deliquescence.   C. hygroscopy.   D. hydrolysis.

16.55g of lead (ll) trioxonitrate(V) was dissolved in 100 g of distilled water at 20°C, calculate the solubility of the solute in mol dm-3 [Pb = 207, N = 14, O = 16] 

A. 0.05 mol dm-3    B. 2.00 mol dm-3   C. 1.00 mol dm-3   D. 0.5 mol dm-3

The dispersion of a liquid in a liquid medium will give ________

A. an emulsion.    B. a fog.    C. a gel.    D. an aerosol.

The major and most effective way of controlling pollution is to

A. improve machinery so that the substances released from combustion are less harmful.
B. pass strict laws against it by individuals and companies.
C. educate people on the causes and effects of pollution.
D. convert chemical wastes to harmless substances before releasing them into the environment.

The basicity of CH3COOH is

A. 3.  B. 4.   C. 1.  D. 2

The colour of litmus in a neutral medium is

A. purple   B. pink   C. yellow   D. orange

The mathematical expression of pH is _______

Which of the following salts will turn blue litmus red?

A. Sodium tetrahydroxozincate(II).
B. Potassium hydrogentetraoxosulphate(Vl).
C. Sodium trioxocarbonate(IV).
D. Zinc chloride hydroxide.

Zn(s) + CuSO4(aq) → ZnSO4(aq) + CO(g)

In the reaction above, the oxidation number of  the reducing agent changes from

A. 0 to +4.   B. 0 to +2.   C. +1 to +2.   D. +1 to +3.

H2O(g) + C(s) → H2(g) + CO(g)

The oxidizing agent in the reaction above is

A. CO(g)   B. C(s)    C. H2O(g)   D. H2(g).

Calculate the quantity of electricity in coulombs required to liberate 10g of copper from copper compound. [Cu=64, F=96500 Cmol-1]

A. 32395.5.   B. 30156.3.    C. 60784.5.   D. 15196.5.

UTME Biology - 40 Questions

The part labelled II is the _____

A. nucleus.   B. eyespot.   C. basal granule.   D. contractile vacuole.

The part responsible for photosynthesis is labelled ______

A. Ill.   B. IV.   C. I   D. II

The lowest level of organization in living organisms is ______

A. organ.   B. cell.   C. system.   D. tissue.

Which of the following is the most complex according to their cellular level of organization?

A. Heart.   B. Hair.   C. Euglena.   D. Hydra.

The organs for attachment to the lining of the host’s intestine are labelled ______

A. I and Ill.   B. III and IV.   C. I and II.    D. II and III.

The young proglottid is represented by ______

A. Ill.    B. IV.    C. l    D. II.

Which of the following organisms is multicellular’?

A. Chlamydomorias.   B. Spirogyra.   C. Amoeba.   D. Euglena.

In bryophytes, sex organs are produced in the ______

A. protonema.   B. sporophyte.   C. gametophyte.   D. rhizoid.

Seed plants are the most dominant vegetation on land because of ________

A. their motile gametes.
B. their ability to photosynthesize.
C. efficient seed dispersal.
D. availability of water.

Which of the following is an aboreal organism?

A. Elephant.   B. Fish.   C. Antelope.   D. Bird.

The part labelled I is the ______

A. xylenm.    B. phloem.    C. root hairs.    D. cortex

The diagram is the transverse section of a ______

A. MonocotyIedonous stem.
B. Dicotyledonous stem
C. Monocotyledonous root
D. Dicotyledonous root.

The dent formula above represents that of

A. an omnivore.   B. a detritus feeder.   C. a carnivore.   D. a herbivore.

A circulatory system is very essential in mammals but not in smaller organisms like Amoeba
because _______

A. Amoeba lives in freshwater.
B. diffusion is sufficient to transport materials in Amoeba.
C. Amoeba lacks food containing haemoglobin.
D. Amoeba exhibits anaerobic respiration.

In vascular plants, the sieve tubes and companion cells are present in the ______

A. cambium.   B. cortex.   C. xylem.   D. phloem.

The stomata of leaves are similar in function to the ______

A. pharynx of humans.
B. scales of fish.
C. spiracle of insects.
D. trachea of toads.

The use of moist skin for respiration in amphibians is known as ______

A. cellular respiration.
B. cutaneous respiration.
C. buccal respiration.
D. pulmonary respiration.

Water in plants is removed as water vapour through the process of _______

A. diffusion.   B. osmosis.   C. evaporation.   D. transpiration.

An example of an organ of perennation in plants is ______

A. rhizome.   B. seed.   C. petal of a flower    D. calyx of flower

Alternation of generation is a feature shown in ______

A. mosses.   B. fungi.   C. grasses.   D. conifers.

I Growth Is mainly apical
II Growth is specific with definite shape.
Ill Growth ¡s throughout life.

Which of the above correctly describes the growth pattern in plants?

A. I, II and III only.   B. II and III only.   C. I and II only.   D. I and III only.

The interaction of a community of organisms with its abiotic environment constitutes

A. an ecosystem    B. a microhabitat    C. a niche    D. a food chain.

The vector of the malaria parasite is a

A. male Culex mosquito
B. female Culex mosquito
C. female Aedes mosquito
D. female Anopheles mosquito.

Which of the following instruments is used to measure relative humidity?

A. Hygrometer.   B. Anemometer.   C. Hydrometer.   D. Thermometer.

Exo-erythrocytic phase of the life cycle of malaria parasite occurs in the

A. Malphigian tubules of mosquito
B. brain of humans
C. liver of humans
D. reticuloendothelial cells of humans.

Habitats are generally classified into

A. aboreal and marine biomes
B. microhabitats and macrohabitats
C. biotic and abiotic
D. aquatic and terrestrial.

Drancunculiasis can be contacted through ______

A. bathing in contaminated water
B. bites of blackfly
C. eating contaminated food
D. drinking contaminated water.

Which of the following groups of environmental factors are density dependent?

A. Food, predation, disease and accumulation of metabolites.
B. Temperature, food, disease and light.
C. Food, salinity, accumulation of metabolites and light.
D. Temperature, salinity, predation and disease.

Millet, sorghum, maize and onions are common crops grown in Nigeria in the

A. montane forests   B. Sahel savanna   C. tropical rainforests   D. Sudan savanna.

In which of the following biomes is the south western part of Nigeria located?

A. Tropical woodland.   B. Desert.   C. Temperate forest.   D. Tropical rainforest.

Lack of space in a population could lead to an increase in

A. disease rate   B. drought   C. water scarcity   D. birth rate.

The inheritable characters that are determined by a gene located only on the X-chromosome is _____

A. homozygous   B. dominant   C. recessive   D. sex-linked.

lf the cross of a red-flowered plant with a white flowered plant produces a pink-flowered plant, it is an example of  ______

A. mutation   B. linkage   C. codominance   D. incomplete dominance.

Which of the following theories was NOT considered by Darwin in his evolutionary theory?

A. Use and disuse    B. Competition.    C. Variation.    D. Survival of the fittest.

The crossing of individuals of the same species with different genetic characters is _____

A. non-disjunction    B. inbreeding     C. cross breeding   D. polygenic inheritance

The number of alleles controlling blood groups in humans is ______

A. 5   B. 2   C. 3   D. 4

During blood transfusion, agglutination may occur as a result of the reaction between ______

A. two different antibodies
B. similar antigens and antibodies
C. contrasting antigens and antibodies
D. two different antigens.

The fallacy in Lamarck’s evolutionary theory was the assumption that ______

A. acquired traits are seldom formed
B. traits are acquired through the use of body pans
C. traits are acquired through disuse of body parts
D. acquired traits are heritable.

The brightly coloured eye spots on the hind wings of a moth are an example of ______

A. crypsis    B. mimicry    C. warning colouration    D. distruptive colouration.

The wings of a bat and those of a bird are examples of _____

A. continuous variation    B. divergent evolution    C. convergent evolution    D. coevolution.

UTME Mathematics - 40 Questions

Which of the formulae below represents the general terms of the following set of numbers.

{-1, \frac{2}{3},  - \frac{1}{2}\frac{2}{5}, .....}

A. \frac{2}{n + 1}     B. (-1)n  \frac{2}{n + 1}     C. \frac{n}{2n - 1}     D. (-1)n  \frac{n}{2n - 1}

Three numbers x, y and z, are connected by the relationships y = \frac{4}{9} x + l and z = \frac{4}{9} y + 1
If x = 99 find z

A. 6\frac{1}{3}     B. 20     C. 21      D. 176\frac{4}{9}

In a school there are 35 students in Class 2A and 40 in Class 2B. The mean score for Class 2A in an English Literature examination is 60.0 and that for 2B in the same paper is 52.5. Find, to one place of decimal, the mean for the combined classes.

A. 1.5     B. 56.0     C. 56.2     D. 56.3

A set of data contains a total of 130 items which are divided into six groups for display on a pie chart. If one group contains 26 items then the sector representing this group on the pie chart contains an angle xo at the centre of the circle where x is

A. 36     B. 60     C. 70     D. 72

In triangle FGH, ∠G = 90o,  ∠H = 60o, while in triangle XYZ, ∠X = 60o and ∠Y = 30o. From ΔXYZ, write down the ratio equal to \frac{FG}{FH}

A. \frac{YZ}{YX}     B. \frac{YX}{YZ}     C. \frac{ZX}{YZ}     D. \frac{YX}{ZX}

A pentagon has four of its angles equal. If the size of the fifth angle is 60o, find the size of each of the four equal angles.

A. 60o    B. 108o    C. 120o    D. 150o

FG is a given straight line and H is a fixed point. The construction marks shown in the diagram above indicate the ______

A. perpendicular bisector of the line FG
B. perpendicular from H to the line FG 
C. perpendicular bisector of the line HI 
D. perpendicular to the line FG at the point

In the figure above, FGHJ is a circle of radius 3 cm centre O. FOH, GOJ are perpendicular diameters. With G as centre, an arc of a circle is drawn to pass through F and H. Find the length of the perimeter of the lunar portion shaded.

A. cm     B. cm     C. cm     D. 9π cm

Find the product of (2 - 3y) and (3y + 2)

A. 4y + y2      B. 4y + 9y2     C. 4y - 9y2        D. -4y - 9y2

The result of dividing by     is _______

A.      B.      C.      D.

What will be the value of k so that the quadratic equation kx2 - 4x + 1 = 0 has two equal roots?

A. 2     B. 3     C. 4     D. 8

Find the solution of the equation x + 2 - 8 = 0

A. (4, 16)     B. (2, 4)     C. (4, 1)     D. (1, 16)

If it is given that 5x+1 + 5x = 150 then the value of x is equal to

A. 3     B. 4     C. 1     D. 2

Solve the system of equation

2x + y = 32
33y - x =  27

A. (3, 2)     B. (-3, 2)     C. (3, -2)     D. (-3, -2)

Simplify the given expression

A. \frac{1 cos x}{sin x}     B. 1 cos x     C. sin x     D. tan x

Find the area of the curved surface of a cone whose base radius is 6 cm and whose height is 5 cm. (Take π = \frac{22}{7})

A. 188.57 cm2    B. 1320 cm2    C. 188 cm2    D. 188:08 cm2

Solve the equation for all positive values of θ less than 360o, 3 tan θ + 2 = -1

A. 135o or 315o     B. 45o or 135o     C. 315o or 45o     D. 315o or 180o

Given log 2 = 0.69, log 3 = 1.10 and log 7 = 1.90 all to a fixed base, find log 10.5 to the same base, without using tables.

A.1.03     B. 2.31     C. 3.69     D. 10.5

Simplify as much as possible

A.       B. x + 1      C. 10x + 6      D. 5x + 3

Find the missing numerator \frac{5}{x + 1} - \frac{3}{1 - x} -   =  \frac{}{x + 1}

A. -1     B. \frac{1}{x + 1}     C. \frac{3(2-5x)}{x - 1}     D. 3(1 - 5x)

The expression x3 - 4x2 + cx + d is such that x + 1 is its factor, and its value is 1 when x = -2. Find c and d.

A. c = 4 and d = -9      B. c = -4 and d = 9      C. c = -20 and d = -15      D. c = 2o and d = -15

If a function is defined by f(x + 1) = 3x2 - x + 4, find f(0)

A. 4     B. 6     C. 8     D. 10

The angles marked in the figure above are measured in degrees. Find x

A. 30o     B. 90o     C. 60o     D. 15o

In the figure above, PS = SR and RX is a tangent to the circle at R, ∠QRX is equal to 72o. Find ∠SPR

A. 20o      B. 36o     C. 72o     D. 30o

If sin θ = and θ is less than 90o,  calculate 

A.      B.      C.      D.

If x varies inversely as y, and y varies directly as the square root of z, and z varies directly as  , write down in words how x varies with w.

A. x varies inversely as w2
B. x varies directly as w2
C. x varies directly as w
D. x varies inversely as w

Write the decimal number 39 to base 2

A. 100111    B. 110111    C. 111001    D. 100101    E. 19.5.

Find the area of the shaded segment in the figure shown above.

A.       B.       C . \frac{2}{3} π      D.  \frac{2}{3} π -

Suppose x varies inversely as y, y varies directly as the square of t and x = 1 when t = 3 Find x when t = \frac{1}{3}

A. 81     B. 27     C. \frac{1}{9}     D.  \frac{1}{21}.

If sine x equals cosine x, what is x in radians?

A.      B.      C.      D.

The ratio of the price of a loaf of bread to the price of a packet of sugar in 1975 was r : t. In 1980 the price of a loaf went up by 25% and that of a packet of sugar by 10%. Their new ratio is now ______

A. 40r : 50t     B. 44r : 50t     C. 50r : 44t     D. 55r : 44t

Find a two-digit number such that three times the tens digit is 2 less than twice the units digit, and twice the number is 20 greater than the number obtained by reversing the digits.

A. 24    B. 42     C. 74     D.47

Find the value of x satisfying the equation \frac{x}{2}  -  \frac{1}{3}  <  \frac{2x}{5}  +  \frac{1}{6}

A. x 7½      C. x < 7½      D. x < -5

If sin xo = \frac{a}{b}, what is sin (90 - x)o ?

A.  \frac{a}{b}     B.  1 -  \frac{a}{b}     C.      D.

7 pupils of average age 12 years leave a class of 25 pupils of average age 14 years. If 6 new pupils of average age 11 years join the class, what is the average age of the pupils now in the class?

A. 13 years    B. 12 years 7½ months     C. 13 years 5 months    D. 13 years 10 months

A sum of money invested at 5 % per annum simple interest amounts to $ 285.20 after 3 years. How long will it take the same sum to amount to $ 434.00 at 7½ % per annum simple interest?

A. 7½ years     B. 10 years     C. 5 years     D. 12 years

By selling an article for  N 45.00 a man makes a profit of 8%. For how much should he have sold it in order to make a profit of 32% ?

A. N 55.00     B. N 59.00     C. N 63.00     D. N 58.00

An isosceles triangle of sides 13 cm, 13 cm, 10 cm is inscribed in a circle. What is the radius of the circle?

A. 7\frac{1}{24}  cm     B. 13 cm     C. 8 cm     D. 7 cm

A group of 14 children received the following scores in a reading test:

35, 35, 26, 26, 26, 29, 29, 29, 12, 25, 25, 25, 25, 17.

What was the median score?

A. 29    B. 26    C. 24.4     D. 25

A micrometre is defined as one millionth of a millimetre. A length of 12,000 micrometres may be represented as _______

A. 0.00012 m     B. 0.0000012 m     C. 0.000012 m     D. 0.00000012 m.

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