UTME CBT Practice Mock Tests – Faculty of Administration – (Maths; Econs; Commerce; Eng) – Set 1

UTME CBT Practice Mock Tests – Faculty of Administration – (Maths; Econs; Commerce; Eng) – Set 1


Hello! Welcome to UTME CBT Practice Mock Tests - Faculty of Administration - (Maths; Econs; Commerce; Eng) - Set 1

  1. You are to attempt 180 Objectives Questions ONLY in the following UTME subjects
    Mathematics;
    Economics;
    Commerce;
    Use of English
  2. Time allowed is 120 minutes (2 hours)
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UTME Mathematics - 40 Questions


(Numbers indicate the lengths of the sides of the triangles).

If the area of A PLR is k2 sq. units what is the area of the shaded portion?

A. \frac{5}{9}  k2 sq.units     B. \frac{1}{3}  k2 sq.units     C. \frac{8}{9}  k2 sq. units     D. \frac{7}{9}  k2 sq. units

Simplify:

A. 8     B. 2     C. 4     D. 6

Find the value of log10 given that log104 = 0.6021

A. 1.3979    B. 2.3979     C. 16021    D. 1.6021

12 men complete a job in 9 days. How many men working at the same rate, would be required to complete the job in 6 days?

A. 24     B. 18     C. 12     D. 9

For the set of numbers 2, 3, 5, 6, 7, 7, 8

A. the median is greater than the mode ,
B. the mean is less than the median.
C. the mean is greater than the median
D. the median is equal to the mean

Simplify:

A. \frac{1}{x}     B. \frac{1-x}{x}     C. \frac{1+x}{x}     D. \frac{1+x}{1-x}

A cylinder of height h and radius r is open at one end. Its surface area is _____

A. 2πrh        B. πr2h        C. 2πrh + πr2       D. πrh + πr2

An arc of a circle of radius 2 cm subtends an angle 60o at the center.  Find the area of the sector.

A. cm2     B. cm2     C. cm2     D. π cm2


In the parallelogram PQRS, PE is perpendicular to QR. Find the area of the parallelogram

A. 60cm2    B. 65cm2     C. 72cm2     D. 144cm2


In the figure above, PQ is parallel to RS. Calculate the value of x

A. 20o    B. 40o    C. 60o    D. 80o

If QR = 3, PS = x, ∠PQS = 30o, ∠PRS = 45o and ∠PSR = 90o, find the value of x in the diagram below.


A.       B.       C.       D.

What is the greatest straight line distance between two vertices (corners) of a cube whose sides are 2239 cm long?

A cm     B. x 2239 cm     C.   x  2239 cm     D. x 2239 cm

What is log7 (49a) - log10 (0.01)?

A.      B. \frac{a}{2} + 2     C. 72a + 2     D. 2a + 2

The size of a quantity first doubles and then increases by a further 16%. After a short time its size decreases by 16%. What is the net increase in size of the quantity?

A. \frac{59300}{625} %      B. \frac{50900}{625} %      C. 200%      D. + 100%


The area under the speed-time graph gives the total distance covered by a car. What is the average velocity to two places of decimals?

A. 17.72 metres/secs     B. 21.67 metres/secs    C. 25 metres/secs     D. 20.45 metres/sees

The following table relates the number of objects f corresponding to a certain size x. What is the average size of an object?

A. \frac{31}{15}      B. \frac{31}{5}      C. \frac{129}{5}      D. \frac{43}{5}

If y = x2 - 2x - 3, find the least value of y and the corresponding value of x

A. x = 3, y = -3     B. x = 1, y - 3     C. x = -4, y = 1       D. x = 1, y = -4

A father is now three times as old as his son. Twelve years ago he was six times as old as his son. How old are the son and the father?

A. 20 and 45     B. 100 and 150     C. 20 and 60     D. 35 and 75

If   =  , then the value of x is _____

A. \frac{3}{4}     B. \frac{4}{3}     C. \frac{1}{3}     D. \frac{2}{3}

A man is standing on the corridor of a 10 storey building and looking down at a tall tree in front of the building. He sees the top of the tree at an angle of depression of 30o. If the tree is 200 m tall and the man’s eyes are 300 m above the ground, calculate the angle of depression of the foot of the tree as seen by the man.

A 30o    B. 60o    C. 45o    D. 75o

Find correct to three significant figures, the value of

A. 205     B. 647     C. 2050     D. 6470

Evaluate (2° + 4 - ½ )2

A. \frac{1}{4}     B. \frac{5}{4}     C. \frac{9}{4}     D. 4

Rationalize the denominator of the given expression

A.

B.

C.

D.

Which of the following is NOT a factor of 124 - 54 ?

A. 7    B. 13     C. 17    D. 49

When a dealer sells a bicycle for N 81 he makes a profit of 8%. What did he pay for the bicycle?

A. N 73    B. N 74.52    C. N 75    D. N 75.52

The median of the set of numbers 4, 94, 13, 7, 14, 10, 17 is _______

A. 13     B. 7     C. \frac{19}{2}     D. 10

List all integer values of x satisfying the inequality - 1 < 2x - 5 ≤ 5

A. 2, 3, 4, 5    B. 2, 5    C. 3, 4, 5    D. 2, 3, 4

Find the roots of the equation 10x2 - 13x - 3 = 0

A. x = \frac{3}{5} or - \frac{1}{2}     B. x = \frac{3}{10} or -1      C. x = - \frac{3}{10} or 1      D. x = - \frac{1}{5} or \frac{3}{2}

A solid cylinder of radius 3 cm has a total surface area of 36π cm2. Find its height

A. 2 cm    B. 3 cm     C. 4 cm     D. 5 cm


In the figure above, if PN is perpendicular to QR, find the value of tan x.

A. \frac{5}{9}     B. \frac{3}{5}     C. \frac{3}{4}     D. \frac{4}{3}

In the figure below, PQIISR, STIIRQ, PS = 7cm, PT = 7cm, SR 4cm,

Find the ratio of the area of QRST to the area of PQRS.

A. 56:77     B. 56:105     C. 28:52.5     D. 28:49

In the figure below, if PT is parallel to RS, PQ = PT and angle SQT 90o
find. x

A 35o      B 50o     C. 55o     D. 70o

Write down the number 0.0052048 correct to three significant figures.

A. 0.005    B. 0.0052    C. 0.00520    D. 5.2048

In the figure below PS bisects angle QPR.

Find the ratio SR:QR

A.1:2    B. 1:3    C. 1:4    D. 1:5

The ratio of the areas of similar triangles is necessarily equal to

A. the ratio of the corresponding sides
B. the ratio of the squares on corresponding sides
C. the ratio of the corresponding heights of the triangles
D. half the ratio of the corresponding heights of the triangles

P and Q are fixed points and X is a variable point which moves so that angle PXQ = 45o. What is the locus of X?

A. A pair of straight lines parallel to PQ
B. The perpendicular bisector of PQ
C. An arc of a circle passing through P and Q
D. A circle with diameter PQ.

A man and wife went to buy an article costing N 400. The woman had 10% of the cost and the man 40% of the remainder. How much did they have altogether?

A. N 216     B. N 200     C. N 184     D.N 144.

Simplify: 

A. log10 4     B. log10 2       C. \frac{3}{2}     D. 2

Make c the subject of the formula   

A.

B.

C.

D.

What factor is common to all the expressions x2 - x, 2x2 + x - 1 and x2 - 1 ?

A. x     B. x - 1     C. x + 1     D. No common factor

UTME Economics - 40 Questions

Imperfect market is characterized by ______

A. perfect mobility of factor of production
B. many buyers and few sellers
C. a large number of buyers and sellers
D. non-preferential treatment


The term ‘Near money’ is best described as _______

A. a financial instrument that is readily convertible to cash
B. government financial instrument that is-convertible to cash
C. time deposits with low interest rates
D. a financial asset that is convertible to cash


The commercial banks differ from non-bank financial institutions because they ______

A. contribute to economic development
B. accept deposits withdrawable by cheque
C. mobilize savings
D. invest surplus funds


The distinguishing characteristic between the money market and the capital market lies in whether the ______

A. securities are primary or secondary
B. debt instruments provided are purchased from firms long-term or short-term
C. funds mobilized are private or public cost of production
D. securities are in debentures or ordinary shares.


For a firm, value added can be defined as the difference between the _______

A. input prices and product prices
B. value of its output and inputs
C. value of its output and the
D. total revenue and total cost


Insurance companies, pension and provident funds and unit trusts are all examples of _____

A. rural-based revenue mobilizes
B. non-governmental organizations
C. government financial agencies
D. non-bank financial institutions


Inflation that is usually associated with periods of trade boom is _____

A. creeping inflation   B. cost-push inflation   C. stagflation   D. demand-pull inflation


The monetary control instrument most effectively used by the Central Bank of Nigeria is the ____

A. open market operation   B. margin requirement   C. reserve ratio   D. discount rate


Securities are described as listed when they are ______

A. mobilized as long-term debt instruments
B. traded on a recognised stock market
C. bought and sold purely for development purposes
D. mobilized as short-term debt instruments


If Nigeria’s composite price index in 1999 was 140.03% and 144.05% in 2000, the rate of inflation in 2000 was _____

A. 1.03%   B. 4.02%   C. 2.10%   D. 2.06%


The theory of comparative advantage states that a commodity should be produced in that nation
where the ______

A. absolute money cost is least
B. opportunity cost is least
C. production possibility curve increases
D. absolute cost is least.


An advantage of the sole proprietorship over the partnership form of business is that _____

A. its existence is limited by an individual’s life span
B. it relies on the decision of friends to succeed
C. the possibility of conflict in management is virtually non-existent
D. it enjoys limited liability for debt in the event of failure


One of the major criticisms of the 1962-1968 National Development Plan was that _____

A. it failed to incorporate lessons gained from earlier plans to enhance its efficiency
B. it came too quickly after the country’s independence
C. planned expenditure was based too heavily on expected earnings from crude oil
D. its execution was based largely on foreign sourced financial resources.


A deficit budget can be used to _____

A. stimulate recovery from a trade depression
B. protect the economy from inflation
C. starve the economy of funds for economic development
D. provide measures to remedy the balance of payments.


ECOWAS has taken a giant step towards economic integration by ______
A. presenting a united front against foreign economic exploiters
B. introducing a common currency for travellers
C. holding frequent meetings at various state capitals
D. increasing economic stability among member states.

One of the major factors militating against industrialization in Nigeria is the _____

A. inadequacy of infrastructural facilities
B. absence of government participation
C. frequent breakdown of equipment
D. failure to get foreign partners and Supporters.


The types, sources and uses of government income are mainly concerned with ______

A. public expenditure    B. public revenue   C. public budget   D. Public finance.


The present privatization policy in Nigeria is aimed at ______

A. reducing income inequality
B. reducing the prices of goods and services
C. poverty alleviation
D. increasing efficiency in production.


One of the problems arising from the localization of industries is _______

A. high prices of output
B. the exportation of output
C. the scarcity of foreign exchange
D. structural unemployment.


The major purpose of African Development Bank is to ______

A. provide loans for trade development
B. provide loans for infrastructural development
C. provide loans for development banks in distress
D. educate peasant farmers in new techniques.


As a country gets more developed, the percentage of labour engaged in agriculture tends to ____

(A) remain constant   (B) decrease steadily   (C) switch over to trading   (D) increase steadily.



In the diagrams above, the opportunity cost of a unit of cotton in terms of cocoa is _______

(A) 4 for Ghana; 2 for Nigeria
(B) 20 for Ghana; 60 for Nigeria
(C) ¼ for Ghana; ½ for Nigeria
(D) 5 for Ghana; 30 for Nigeria.


When two variables are positively related, the graph of the relationship

A. is a downward-sloping curve
B. has a negative intercept
C. is a straight line
D. is an upward-sloping curve


For an inferior good. a decrease in real income will lead to _____

A. a lower equilibrium price
B. a change in quantity demanded
C. an outward shift of the demanded curve
D. an inward shift of the demand curve



If the country is currently producing at point Y, it can increase production of producer goods by _____

A. W   B. X   C. Z   D. V



An improvement in technology will enable the country product at _______

A. X   B. V   C. Z   D. V


In economic analysis, a statement is said to be normative if it _______

A. relates to value judgment   B. is incorrect   C. can be tested scientifically   D. is contradictory


Utility is the satisfaction derived from _______

A. demand   B. production   C. distribution   D. consumption


The price of a good rises from N 5 to N 8 and   the quantity demanded falls from 200 to 190 units.
Over this price range, the demand curve is _____

A. perfectly inelastic   B. fairly inelastic   C. perfectly elastic   D. fairly elastic


In a planned economy, the emphasis is on _______

A. public ownership and control
B. price and competition
C. individual choices and decisions
D. private ownership and control



In the table above, the price of commodity y is N 2 and that of x is N 1 while the individual has an income of N 12. Determine the combination of the two commodities the individual should consume to maximize his utility.

A. 6y and 4x   B. 3y and 6x   C. 5y and 5x   D. 3y and 3x


If there is an increase in demand without a corresponding increase in supply, there will be a _____

A. rise in price   B. shift in demand curve to the left   C. fall in price   D. shift in supply curve to the right


The best method of production in an under populated country is ______

A. labour-intensive    B. labour-extensive   C. land-intensive   D. capital-intensive



At 60 units of output, the AVC is _____

A. N 2.50   B. N 1.50   C. N 90.00   D. N 150.00



The ATC at 30 units of output is ______

A. N 3.00   B. N 4.00   C. N 60.00   D. N 12.00


If the demand curve facing a firm is sharply downward sloping, the firm is likely to be ______

A. a monopolistic competitor as it can have a limited influence on price
B. a monopolist as it can have a great influence on price
C. a perfect competitor as it cannot influence the market price
D. an oligopoly as it can collude with other firms to have some influence on price


A normal supply curve is usually positively sloped because the relationship between

A. a price and supply is positive
B. demand and price is positive
C. supply and price is negative
D. price and demand is negative


Short-run period in production is a period too short for a firm to be able to change its ______

A. scale of operation   B. total revenue   C. variable inputs   D. total outputs


Price elasticity of supply is a ratio of the change in _______

A. original quantity to a change in price
B. quantity supplied to the change in price
C. price to the change in quantity supplied
D. quantity supplied to the change in demand


The long-run average cost curve is called a planning curve because it shows what happens to cost when _____

A. a bigger size of plant is built
B. different sizes of plant built
C. variable inputs are increased
D. fixed factors are increased


UTME CBT Commerce - 40 Questions

The most important factor that delayed the development of commerce in Nigeria was _____

A. the inefficient means of communication
B. that there were few entrepreneurs
C. the unavailability of infrastructural facilities
D. that there were few developed markets.


Secondary production has to do with changing the ______

A. shape of raw materials through construction operations
B. physical form of raw materials into finished goods
C. Utility of raw materials by an engineering process
D. nature of raw materials through manufacturing.


The major responsibility of an entrepreneur is _______

A. employing all factors of production in the business
B. coordinating and determining the proportion of what to produce
C. planning and organizing all activities in the business
D. directing and controlling all the affairs of the business.


Which of the following best describes the scope of commerce?

A. all forms of commercial exchanges and the manufacturing industry
B. Buying and selling and the construction industry
C. All occupational exchanges relating to industries and commercial activities
D. Buying and selling as well as the extraction of natural resources.


Capital as a factor of production can be used as ________

A. money that is regarded as asset
B. goods that are useful in business
C. input for further production
D. services that provides satisfaction.


The agency that currently oversees the privatization and commercialization processes in Nigeria is the _________

A. Securities and Exchange Commission
B. Technical Committee on privatization
C. Nigerian Stock Exchange
D. Bureau of Public Enterprises.


Okeze contracted to sell TV to Ojo. Unknown to them, the sets were stolen in transit. This contract may be terminated on the grounds of ______

A. bankruptcy   B. frustration   C. fraudulence   D. breach of contract.


Which of the following countries are members of the Lake Chad Basin Commission?

A. Niger and Cameroun   B. Benin and Nigeria   C. Chad and Benin   D. Nigeria and Mail.


A core investor in the current phase of privatization in Nigeria is one who ______

A. can afford to buy most of the shares of the enterprises
B. will be at the core of the enterprises
C. can mobilize foreign currency equivalent to the value of the enterprises
D. has the technical know-how of the enterprises.


The agency in Nigeria which ensures that products conform to government quality specifications is the ______

A. Standards Organization of Nigeria
B. Nigeria Consumers’ Association
C. Manufacturers’ Association of Nigeria
D. Nigerian Chamber of Commerce.


Awarding scholarships and sponsoring sports by a business organizations are examples of ____

A. advertising strategy   B. economic responsibility   C. marketing strategy   D. social responsibility.


The commercialization of public enterprises is aimed at _____

A. increasing efficiency and making the enterprises self-sufficient
B. advertising and promoting the goods and services of the enterprises
C. increased assistance and patronage of the enterprises by the public
D. selling the goods and services of the enterprises.


An author’s exclusive right to his published and unpublished works is known as _____

A. author’s right   B. constitutional right   C. patent right   D. copyright.


Under an endowment policy, the money handed over to the insured at the expiration of the stipulated time or at death is the ______

A. indemnity   B. surrender value   C. lump sum benefit   D. insurance premium.


The machine used for sending telex messages is known as a ________

A. radar   B. fax machine  C. dictaphone   D. teleprinter.


Which of these insurance principles requires a close connection between the actual loss suffered and the risk insured?

A. Indemnity   B. Proximate cause   C. Contribution   D. Subrogation.


The unit through which the results of a processed data are displayed is the ______

A. logic unit   B. display unit   C. control unit   D. output unit.


Which of the following is used to inform the addressee that a registered parcel is ready for collection?

A. Express label   B. Counterfoil   C. Telegram   D. Slip.


The type of computer found in offices is ______

A. laptop   B. desktop   C. the hybrid computer   D. the main computer.


The mode of transporting crude oil to the ports for export purposes is by ______

A. tanker   B. rail    C. road   D. pipeline.


The temporary insurance certificate issued to the insured before drawing up a policy is a _____

A. cover note   B. testimonial   C. time policy   D. proposal form.


The bulls and bears in the Stock-Exchange market help to minimize _______

A. the number of shares and bonds sold
B. price increase of securities
C. fluctuations in the prices of securities
D. the elasticity of the prices of securities.


Debentures differ from shares in that ______

A. they are secured on the company’s assets
B. ownership is open to the public
C. they form part of the capital of the business
D. rewards are usually paid out of profit.


The Stock Exchange is a market where _____

A. Long-term securities are sold
B. All types of securities are sold
C. Short term securities are sold
D. Medium term securities are sold.


A retail cooperative aims at _____

A. hoarding manufacturing goods
B. cutting off the profit of middlemen
C. lending money to members at low interest rates
D. encouraging members to save money.


A bill of exchange already accepted can be discounted by the holder in ______

A. the Central Bank   B. at least two banks   C. his bank   D. any bank.


The document issued by the seller which gives details of the goods he sells is known as _____

A. catalogue   B. tender   C. price list   D. invoice.


Given:

I. Retail   II. Export   Ill. Transport   IV. import   V. Insurance   VI. Banking and finance   VII. Whole sale   VIII. Communication.

Which of the above are aids to trade?

A. I, II, Ill and VIII
B. III, V, VI and VIII
C. I, II, Ill and VI
D. II, V,V, and VII.


The organizational structure relates the positions of specialists to the line managers is called ____

A. line structure   B. staff structure   C. line and staff structure   D. functional structure.


A wholesaler who possesses the title to the goods he sells is known as ______

A. a merchant wholesaler   B. a multiple wholesaler   C. a general wholesaler   D. an agent wholesaler.


An important principle of a good organizational structure is ______

A. ideal standard   B. span of control   C. clarity of mission   D. adequacy of resources.


A company that is registered with the Corporate Affairs Commission only without being enlisted on the Stock exchange is a _______

A. public liability company
B. joint venture
C. limited company
D. registered company.


A contract for the sale of goods involves the ______

A. producer, the seller and the buyer of goods
B. offering of goods to customers
C. transfer of title to goods for money
D. exchange of goods.


The total of the share capital which a company would be allowed to issue is known as ______

A. called up capital   B. paid- up capital   C. nominal capital   D. issued capital.


The process of mobilizing, engaging and maintaining workers to work for an organization is referred to as _____

A. staffing   B. selection   C. recruitment   D. employment.


Recognized members of the Stock Exchange are ______

A. bulls   B. jobbers   C. brokers   D. stages.


Which of the following involves foreign trade?

A. Supermarkets   B. Chain stores   C. Departmental stores   D. Commodity market.


Which of the following is a function of employers’ association?

A. Undertaking research on behalf of employees
B. Promotion of thrift in workers
C. Promotion of workers’ welfare
D. Dissemination of information through sponsored journals.


Which of the following industries is normally located near the source of its raw materials?

A. Footware industry   B. Cement factory   C. Textile industry   D. Automobile assembly.


One of the most important functions of marketing is ______

A. encouraging research activities to meet needs
B. Creating classes of merchants among businessmen
C. the extension of markets for business
D. providing finances to business.

UTME Use of English - 60 questions

PASSAGE I - COMPREHENSION:

Read the passage carefully and answer the question that follows.

There are many different approaches to conflict management, each of which may have utility in particular circumstances. A great deal of scholarship has been devoted to analysing how and in what situations different approaches can be applied most effectively.

Conflict management approaches can be classified into two broad categories: firstly on the basis of the level of escalation which the particular conflict is being managed. In this sense one can distinguish between the peaceful and the military approaches. The trademarks of the peaceful approach are negotiation, verbal persuasion, use of inducements, denial of privileges and subtle manipulations, short of the use of physical forces.

While those of the military approach relates to the use of physical coercion. The use of physical force could be by a party to the conflict or a third party to promote one side’s interests, impose a settlement or create a situation in which diplomatic negotiations can occur.

Secondly, conflict management approaches can also be classified according to the status of the participants in the bargaining process. For example, a conflict could be managed through negotiation that is, direct bargaining by the parties involved in the conflict or through mediation, that is with the help of a third party.

Adaped from Imobiche. T.A. (2003) The (OAUTAU) and OAS Regional Conflict Management A comparative Assesment, lbadan: Spectrum Books Ltd.

1. The expression third party as used in the passage means:

A. Politician   B. Intruder   C. conformist   D. Mediator.


2. From the passage, it can be deduced that _____

A. All nations adopt the peaceful approach
B. All nations prefer the military option
C. Prevailing circumstances push a warring nation to sue for peace.
D. Conflicts are noted for facilitating opportunities.


3. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage?

A. The approach to employ in conflict management depends on the state of affairs.
B. Only one conflict management approach can be applied in all situations
C. All conflict management approaches can be applied in all situations.
D. There is a general disagreement among scholars on conflict management


4. According to the passage, the different approaches to conflict management are:

A. pernicious    B. uniform    C. misleading    D. Fundamental.


5. The word utility; as used in the passage means:

A. difficulty    B. Attitude    C. usefulness    D. Management.


6. The word couched, as used in the passage, means ______

A. Arrange   B. Expressed   C. modified   D. Itemized.




PASSAGE ll
The passage below has gaps. Immediately following each gap, four options are provided. Choose the most appropriate option for each gap.

Before now, students bumped onto career by chance or through the advice and insistence of parents. These parents had pre-conceived notions of ----7------[ A. prestigious, B. insignificant, C. inferior, D. debased]

profession and gave little consideration to their children’s ------8-----[A. interest, B. aptitude, C. knowledge, D. skills.]
Student’s career decisions were also ---------9--------[A. hampered. B. influenced, C. subdued D. rejected] by the type of secondary schools they attended.
Before government take-over of schools in 1971, over 80% of elementary and secondary schools were privately owned and competition was -----10-----[A. minimal. B. high, C. low D. moderate] among these schools.
Each strived to calve an -----11-----[A. image, B. attitude, C. effort, D. avenue for]
herself by excelling in sports or academics and students often ended up in -----12----[A. engineering, B. medicine, C. the sciences D. law. ]
Junior student tried to --------13------[A. emulate, B. appreciate, C. reject D. denounce] the career choices of their seniors.
This spirit of rivalry among mission and private schools ----14----[A. waned, B. heightened, C. intensified, D. increased] with government take-over of schools.
Government’s involvement in career development is beset with many problems. One of such problem is the ------15-----[A. acute, B. mild, C. slow, D. average] shortage of professional career development officers.

These few officers are -----16----[A. usually, B. seldom, C. often, D. frequently] given the opportunity to practice.



In these questions, select the option that best explains the information conveyed in the sentence.

13. The workers tightened their hold on the capital

A. They tightened a rope round their capital
B. They controlled their capital more strictly
C. They held onto other workers in the capital
D. They stretched their hold on the capital and beyond


14. Amedu’s action provoked severe criticism

A. His actions were seriously rejected
B. His actions were severe and accepted.
C. His actions were itemized because he was young.
D. His actions provoked the humour.


15. I haven’t seen the movie and my brother haven’t either.

A. I have seen the movie but neither of my brothers has.
B. My brother and I haven’t seen the movie
C. Only my brother has seen the movie
D. I was the only one that has seen the movie.


16. Sule would have been given the car if his father had not complained.

A. He wasn’t given the car because his father complained
B. He was given the car because his father complained
C. His father complained about the car and he was given.
D. He was given the car even though his father didn’t complain.


17. Adayi cannot halt the march of time.

A. She is willing to march on
B. She cannot change the way thing has happen.
C. She halts the march on time.
D. She cannot alter the peace march.


23. The lecture is Uye’s road to Damascus.

A. The lecture is an opportunity to travel to Damascus.
B. The lecture is an experience that changes the way she thinks
C. The lecture talks exclusively about Damascus.
D. The lecture is an experience that cannot be changed.


24. Ado is one of the backwoodsmen.

A. He is one of those that live in a distant and underdeveloped area
B. He is one of the active member of the community
C. He is one of the honest men that lives in the community
D. He is one of those that live in the most developed part of the city.


25. Bello said he would pitch his tent with the club.

A. He would support the club.
B. He would build a pitch in the club
C. He would build a tent on the pitch.
D. He would distance himself from the club.


27. Kasim would have attended the party if he had been invited.

A. He would not have attended even if he was invited
B. He attended the party before he was invited.
C. He was not invited and so, he did not attend
D. He attended the party without invitation.

 

For these questions, choose the option opposite in meaning to the word or phrase in italics

18. Adewale’s arrival always triggers a media frenzy

A. Violence   B. Agitation   C. Calm   D. Excitement.


19. She said, the experience was harrowing.

A. Educating   B. Frightening   C. Pleasant   D. Strange


20. The house was invaded by the young officers

A. Set up   B. Put down   C. Defended   D. built


21. I like Adamu weird attitude.

A. Buoyant   B. Peculiar   C. Zestful   D. normal.


22. We travelled to an obscure little town.

A. rugged   B. Distinguished   C. Secluded   D. inglorious.


23. She is known for her bizarre dressing.

A. Natural   B. Weird   C. Obsolete   D. Odious.


24. Lami normally scurries around town

A. Scampers   B. Dashes   C. Dawdles   D. Scuffles


25. Sule’s poem is always explicit and compelling

A. Exciting   B. Clear   C. Ambiguous   D. Long.


26. Usman smiled in a scornful way

A. Respectful   B. Derisive   C. Sarcastic   D. Deluded


27. Alade is noted for his erratic behaviour.

A. Fitful   B. Bizarre   C. Consistent   D. Euphoric


28. The Priest knows Ochai as an abstainer

A. Someone who never drinks alcohol
B. Someone who holds onto his ideas
C. Someone who reads a lot
D. Someone who never cares about others.




For this questions, choose the option nearest in meaning to the word or phrase in italics.

29. She gave a caustic remark on the occasion

A. tangible   B. Friendly   C. Insignificant   D. Sarcastic.


30. It was a good try but it didn’t quite walk out.

A. Come to   B. come off   C. come from   D. come for


31. Garuba’s performances in the competition was horrid.

A. terrible   B. encouraging   C. Commendable   D. rigid.


32. Just give me the basic facts with needless details

A. relevant   B. extraneous   C. essential   D. critical


33. Usarna likes toys made with bright and animated colours.

A. dull   B. sparkling   C. black   D. deep


34. The man has strong distaste for alcohol.

A. love   B. aversion   C. desire   D. excitement.


35. The schism in the organisation is on the increase.

A. disagreement   B. understanding   C. opportunity   D. rot


36. Sule admires people who have unbending character

A. mobile   B. steady   C. wavering   D. unstable


37. He detests honesty

A. likes   B. hates   C. encourages   D. commands.




From questions below; choose the option that best completes the gap(s)

38. The number of stores will be increased ... twenty to thirty.

A. from   B. on   C. at   D. into


39. ……..bomb had earlier been defused

A. A leaf   B. An alive   C. A life   D. A live


40. The mechanic did not tell me the brakes …..... bad

A. were   B. are   C. is   D. was.


41. Tayo could have supplied the goods but it was ….. into two

A. splitting   B. split   C. splited   D. splits.


42. Had Aisha realized what marriage entails she ………..

A. could have not rush into it
B. would have rushes into it
C. would not have rushes into it
D. would not have rushed into it.


43. The company deals ... computer software

A. with   B. for   C. in    D. to.


44. There is no logic ______ any of their claims.

A. with   B. in   C. from   D. up


45. ………. the house was an easy task for the demolition squad.

A. Bringing forth   B. Tearing down   C. Bringing up   D. Tearing with.




For this question, choose the option that has the same vowel sound as the one represented by the letter(s) underlined.

46. Bore

A. call   B. curl   C. slot   D. hum


47. Head

A. said   B. heard   C. herd   D. shirt.


48. Sky.

A. cite   B. eats   C. breaks   D. coil.




For questions below, choose the appropriate stress pattern from the options. the stress syllables are written in capital letter(s)

49. Programmatic

A. proGRAMmatic    B. PROgrammatic    C. programMATIC   D. programmatiC


50. Certification

A. certiFIcation   B. CERtification   C. certificAtion   D. cerTIfication.

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